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  5. "Quand manges-tu du pain ?"

"Quand manges-tu du pain ?"

Translation:When do you eat bread?

February 28, 2013



This was very hard to understand what the speaker was saying. At least for me it was


Yes, difficult. I thought she said "comme", not "quand". Very subtle differences.


I agree. The liaison between "quand" and "manges" drops the hard D. They should teach liaisons -- that would really help understanding the spoken French as well!


They do teach it - this is lesson one. :)


I have not yet read about liaisons. Will check it out. Thanks.


These resources may help you: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_X49ps_Ptyg http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DZfyCvOBV3w

I chose videos rather than articles because it's better to hear how the liaisons are formed. It'll help you a lot with some of these Duolingo pronunciations!


While it's not concrete, I found a really good rule of thumb is to just make sure it rolls off the tongue well. The same way we change "a" to "an" if it precedes a word beginning with a vowel, I believe the "d" in "quand" would be pronounced if it preceded a vowel.


Liasons are usually when a word ends with a consonant and the next word starts with a vowel. This doesn't happen when a word ends with a consonant and the bext wird is 'et'. Eg.: Mes amies Les oiseaux But not when the sentence is 'un crayon et une gomme'.

Hope this helps!!

  • 1187

I am French, the sound (quand) is ok (avril 2018)


Listen, why would anyone ever ask this question? When do YOU eat bread? "Oh, I eat bread at 3 o'clock in the morning to really pack on the pounds."


Yea I put when WILL you eat bread because I thought it would make more sense but alas I was wrong again


that's asking about the future.. for a general or specific time now or future time 'when do you' .. compared to specifically 'when will you' knowing it will be in the future


who has scheduled times for when to eat bread? carb diet maybe?


Many Duo sentences don't hold up to this kind of scrutiny. For the most part, they are simply exercises using a word in a sentence. Let's hope that it is correct and natural but it may not be one you write down in your phrase book. ;-)


Why does it matter if you say "some bread" or just "bread"? Confused!!!


Some bread refers to not eating the whole piece or loaf, whereas just bread refers to the object as if it were a direct noun.


Isn't there a est-ce que missing or is that not needed here? Could someone please explain when it is needed and when it is not.


There are three ways to form a question in French, with varying formality (first is used more in writing, last is mainly oral): 1. Inversion: [question word] verb-subject [rest of sentence]? (Quand manges-tu du pain?) (note the hyphen - it's required) 2. Est-ce que: [question word] est-ce que subject verb [rest of sentence]? (Quand est-ce que tu manges du pain?) 3. Tone: Say a normal sentence with a questioning tone/ put a question mark at the end. (Tu manges du pain?) I'm not sure whether it's common to use the last method with question words, any native speakers want to chime in?


what is the purpose of the 'est-ce que' in your second example? Does it change the meaning of the sentence?


What is wrong with "When are you eating the bread?"


Because it's not "the bread", but just "bread" (du pain). https://www.thoughtco.com/du-de-la-des-1368977


Why the use of 'du' in a question above is not there in the answer? Is it just to sound beautiful or why is it so? Soon I have exams for french language test :(


Not sure what you mean not in the answer. Sometimes there are multiple correct answers to a given question, and Duo will only present one or two of them - those that seem to be the most accurate.

'Du' is the contraction of 'de' and 'le', or 'some/of' and 'the'. So 'du pain' would mean 'some bread'. In English you would not need to add some bread, as it is already implied that you are having some quantity of bread (unless you put 'the bread' or 'two pieces of bread' etc).


Why can't my answer be accepted when I wrote" when WILL you eat bread." Its basically the same


Because it really isn't.

Think of these two statements: I go to the park.... I will go to the park.... As you can see, one is future tense, one is present tense.

If you asked "When Will", you're asking for a specific time (e.g. "Sometime later" or "4pm"). If asking "When do", you're asking about the specific action (e.g. "When I go to the bakery" or "When I eat soup").


Some of the questions duolingo comes up with make me laugh. Has anybody ever asked the question "when do you eat bread?"


That doesn't matter. Duolingo gets us to learn vocabulary and how to form sentences, not sentences we say on a day-to-day basis. It isn't a phrase book.


Why is manges-tu hyphenated?


It is normal way of asking a question by inverting the order of the subject and verb. As a statement, it is "tu manges", but as a question it is "manges-tu" and the hyphen is required.


When we write do we really need du? Duolingo counts it wrong every time I leave "some" out of the translation.


Yes, you do. When talking about food or drink, it is essential. Without it, the sentence has no meaning in French. Just have a look at the English sentence "I am a man". If you leave out the "a", the sentence means nothing. It's the same for "du" in French.

Just remember that "du" is for masculine nouns", since it is a contraction of "de" and "le".


Okay may seem like a reallly stupid question, but when a question is asked does the (dunno what theyre called) il, elle, je, tu, vous etc switch behind the verb as opposed to when the sentence is a statement? I.e. Mange-tu rather than tu mange?


Using inversion is a common way of asking a question in French. It means that the normal subject-verb word order in inverted (flipped) so that it becomes verb-subject. I.e.,

  • tu manges (or) vous mangez = you are eating
  • manges-tu (or) mangez-vous = are you eating


the word 'some' makes a difference


The word "some" as it is used in this sentence is not required. The meaning is not changed in English. But in French, the "du" is absolutely required. It is called a partitive article. It means that one is referring to an undetermined amount of something.

  • Il mange du pain = he eats (or) he is eating bread. You may also say "he eats (or) he is eating some bread". The meaning is not changed.

Most of the time, the English "some" is omitted when it is used this way. https://www.thoughtco.com/du-de-la-des-1368977


I put "when do you have some bread?" and it says wrong.


French do use the verb "prendre" as a counterpart for "have" in this context. But since this sentence uses "manger", it should be translated as "eat", not "have".


Is it correct to say "quand est-ce que tu manges du pain ?" ?


You could say it and it would be grammatically correct but there is no change in the translation and nothing is added either way by including it.


DL says that "When are you eating some bread?" is the correct translation. But are is a present tense verb and the question is asked for future tense. I rendered it "when will you be eating some bread?" When do you eat bread? is fine but that's not what the program says.


Well, you might be reading into what tense is being used in the question being presented.

  • From the French, Quand manges-tu du pain ?, it is in present tense. The equivalent would be "when do you eat bread?" or "when are you eating bread?" A careful look will reveal to you that a reference to the future "when will you ..." is something that you introduced into the sentence.
  • From the English, When do you eat bread?, it is also in present tense. It is a general question, not about this specific moment and not about some time in the future. It is just asking "when". Remember that when conjugating English present continuous, the "you are eating" or "are you eating" are not two different verbs ("to be" and "to eat"). It is one conjugation of the verb "to eat" in the present continuous tense. So when you translate to French, do not translate "are" and "eating" as separate words, but as a single translation unit. Remember, too, that the emphatic form "you do eat" is not commonly used in English, but it is basically the default when it comes to forming a question in English by using inversion. I.e., "You do eat" becomes "do you eat". Again, "do" and "eat" are not separate verbs. They are part of a single translation unit and in French, they are represented by "tu manges" (as a statement) or "manges-tu" (as a question).


Duolingo stated that I needed to wrote: "some" bread. I thought "du" was there just for formality? I'm not too sure when I should and shouldn't use "du" now...


More information has been added about this topic in the comments above. Please take a look.


I keep writing 'when did you eat bread' Can someone please tell me the difference. Merci


Tu as mangé du pain quand? and tu manges du pain quand?


why is when will you eat bread wrong?


Some information relevant to your question has been added in the comments above. Please take a look.


The phrase (What do you eating bread?) Is not accepted and should be accepted.

The link below says it can be.


Sorry the link is more french. I speak more french.

If I'm wrong, tell me. :)


Sorry, Jack. "what do you eating bread" doesn't make any sense in English.


As so many others have said, the audio sounds more like comme than quand


I really heard 'Comment manges-tu du pain ?'. Even after listening a good many times :-(

  • 1187

native speaker : sorry ;-) i hear "quand".... with the female voice (the young voice)


does anyone else think that's a weird sentence....?

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