Hi, Wataya - to confirm - sollen can mean 'shall' OR 'should' depending on context? Oy, veh. That's imprecise for such a precise language.
I shall do my homework. = it is going to happen
I should do my homework. = always true. Maybe I'll do my homework and maybe I won't - but I SHOULD. Morally speaking. And because Miss will give me grief if I don't.
These two sentences mean quite different things.
You really don't differentiate?
Thanks for the help. I can't imagine being able to deal with subtleties like this in a second language. Respect! :)
No, I can't do any more about it than you. After reading muaddib's comment: you probably shouldn't report it. The use of "whereto" sounds archaic even to my non-native ears. I didn't trust my first intuition because Merriam Webster doesn't mark it as outdated, so I thought it to be still in use: http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/whereto
After reading muaddib's comment I double-checked with the Oxford dictionaries and they indeed mark it as "archaic": http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/whereto
So, I guess it's best to follow muaddib's advice and forget about it.
Yes, I think you're right. "Wohin" is probably a "directional" word, while "wo" simply indicates location. "Da" and "dahin" are similar. It's sort of like the archaic English distinction between "where" and "whither"... English seems to have lost a bit of its precision over the years.
Try reporting it, that could be correct also. It is just that the common way to ask in English has become "Where should we go?" and the "to" has just become understood. For example, we could answer "We should go home." and the "to" is again understood, but it would be used to say "We should go to the beach." or "We should go to a restaurant." etc.
I think this is technically correct but almost no-one would ever say it. If you want to include "to" the common way of doing so is to say "Where should we go to?" As an aside, you are more likely to hear someone use "to whom" rather than "to where" in a question but the principle is the same. Both are a bit tortured in their grammatical correctness but "to whom" would be far more common.
In German there are three word for where, "Wo" (where), "Wohin" (where to), and "Woher" (where from). It may seem complicated, but we have a similar system in English. For example, let's use the sentence "Where is he swimming?" This question is basically asking where where exactly he is swimming. For example, he may be swimming in the pool. The German version of this sentence would be "Wo schwimmt er?" But what if you wanted do know where he was swimming from or where he was swimming to. For example, he may be swimming from the shallow end of the pool and he may be swimming to the deep end of the pool. If you wanted to know where he was from swimming from, in German you would say "Woher schwimmt er?", and if you wanted to know where he was swimming to, you would say "Wohin schwimmt er?" However, in English you would also ask two different questions to know where he is swimming from and to. To know where he is swimming from, you would say "Where is he swimming from?", and to know where he's swimming to, you would saw "Where is he swimming to?". I at first had trouble with "Wo", "Wohin", and "Woher", but when I found that English has a similar system it made it a million times easier for me.
"Must" and "should" are not the same. In this case, for instance, "I must go" means there is no alternative. "I should go" means I have an obligation to go, or it would be wise for me to go - but nevertheless, I might not go. For more, see: http://blog.oxforddictionaries.com/2014/03/must-should-ought/
[Native US English speaker]