"Du hast keine guten Schuhe."

March 1, 2013


Isnt Schuhe masculine? Der Schuhe?

March 1, 2013

"der Schuh (Sg.)" - "die Schuhe (Pl.)"

March 1, 2013

Well, if it is plural, why 'gut' takes a -en in its end (guten) ? It's supposed to be 'gute' because it's plural in accusative, isn't it?

April 5, 2013

It is plural accusative and -en is correct.

April 5, 2013

I'd like to know if my reasoning makes sense: 'keine' might be used in the same cases in which "ein" is suitable. So, "kein" would be the negative of an object, whereas "nicht" would be the negative of an action or state. If so, when the object is in the plural, why does "(k)ein" remains in singular? why not "keinen", for instance?

April 27, 2013

'Kein' isn't an adjective, it's an article (the zero article to be exact). Hence, it has different inflection rules to adjectives. It inflects in the same way as the possessive articles, i.e. in the accusative (such as in this statement), we have masc = 'keinen', neut = 'kein', fem = 'keine', and plural = 'keine'. See

July 22, 2013

Where is the word 'any' stated in this? surely its implied simply by leaving it out.

May 21, 2013

its a given. It sounds more natural with it in English

August 24, 2013
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