"Du hast keine guten Schuhe."
Well, if it is plural, why 'gut' takes a -en in its end (guten) ? It's supposed to be 'gute' because it's plural in accusative, isn't it?
I'd like to know if my reasoning makes sense: 'keine' might be used in the same cases in which "ein" is suitable. So, "kein" would be the negative of an object, whereas "nicht" would be the negative of an action or state. If so, when the object is in the plural, why does "(k)ein" remains in singular? why not "keinen", for instance?
'Kein' isn't an adjective, it's an article (the zero article to be exact). Hence, it has different inflection rules to adjectives. It inflects in the same way as the possessive articles, i.e. in the accusative (such as in this statement), we have masc = 'keinen', neut = 'kein', fem = 'keine', and plural = 'keine'. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German_declension#Indefinite_articles.5B2.5D
Where is the word 'any' stated in this? surely its implied simply by leaving it out.