"I have told you many times."

Translation:Te lo he dicho muchas veces.

March 2, 2013


Sorted by top post


What does the "lo" do? I would translate is as: I have told you it many times

March 2, 2013


You are right. "lo" is a direct object pronoun that is the "it" that is untranslated, but understood, in the English

March 2, 2013


But in some other sentence. It was with out the lo

July 22, 2014


There was this sentence without the lo. Porque tú no me has dicho. When to add it and when to cross it out

July 24, 2014


With the verb decir, my understanding (though this could well be a regional thing) is that if you're going to have an indirect object (to whom your speech is directed), then a direct object (what was said) is obligatory, even if it's just the abstract clitic "lo".

What I don't understand is why the canonical translation above uses "los" rather than just "lo".

April 16, 2014


Transferring the plural quality to the direct object clitic in the presence of the indirect object "se" seems like a common "error" that has gained acceptance in certain areas.

See section 6.b. of the following link: http://lema.rae.es/dpd/srv/search?id=elLl31yYnD65MTS9uF

August 23, 2014


Fascinating! For anyone else who's following that link and having trouble with the content, here's my effort at a translation:

b) En el español de muchos países de América, es frecuente, especialmente en registros populares o coloquiales, trasladar a la forma singular del pronombre átono de acusativo en función de complemento directo el rasgo de plural correspondiente al complemento indirecto, cuando este va representado por la forma invariable se: «¡No entienden que este es mi espacio, es mi lugar! Cuántas veces quieren que se los diga» (Purroy Desertor [Ven. 1989]), en lugar de Cuántas veces quieren que se LO diga. Aunque en algunos países esta transferencia indebida se ha extendido incluso entre hablantes cultos, se recomienda evitarla en el habla esmerada.

b) In the Spanish of many American countries, it's common, especially in popular or colloquial registers, to transform the singular unstressed accusative complement serving as a direct object, to have the plurality trait corresponding to the indirect complement when this is represented by the invariable form se. "They don't understand that this is my space, it's my place! How many times do they want me to tell them?!" (I think the citation means this comes from a source titled Desertor by an author named Purroy, published in Venezuela in 1989.) The latter clause, with los, is used in place of Cuántas veces quieren que se LO diga. Although in some countries this improper transformation has extended even to educated speakers, it is recommended that the careful speaker avoid it.

So, I guess it at least is acceptable, in some dialects of large portions of the Americas, as long as the "you" involved are plural.

Still, it seems like the "lo" version should be canonical.

August 23, 2014


Because it usually goes with the Ustedes translations.

April 24, 2014


Nope. If it's "I've told [it/something] [to you] many times," then the "to you" part, regardless of whether it's singular or plural, formal or informal, is an indirect object, not a direct object. So it starts out as te, le, os, or les. Le or les convert to se when you also introduce a direct object. ( http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/iodopro.htm )

The thing that was told is the direct object, and there's no obvious reason why that should be plural.

I guess in theory you could have some preceding sentence in which it's established that you're discussing multilple things that can be told, like a set of measurements. But without that context, the "los" is weird.

April 24, 2014


Thank you for your excellent explanations. I have only rarely used "lo" with decir unless something wasn't explicitly clear.

January 16, 2015


What is wrong with "le he dicho muchas veces"? (Assume that I am using the formal form instead of the familiar form.)

August 23, 2013


As noted above, when you give decir an indirect object, I think in at least the dialect I learned, giving it a direct object of some kind is obligatory. That can be an actual clause: Le dije que la quiero. I told her that I love her. It can be a noun phrase: Le dije la historia. I told her the story. (Edited to add: I think I'd probably choose "contar" for this particular case. But I think it's at least "legal" to do it with decir.) You also can put in the literal thing that's being said: Le dije «¡Adiós!» I said to him, "Goodbye!" If you don't have ANY direct object, you toss in "lo", to give it one.

April 16, 2014


Nothing, that is correct. I just reported it.

October 18, 2013


I understand everything about the construction of this sentence except the use of LOS. I have told(it) to you(se) many times. Why the need to assume that "what I have told you" MUST be pluralized. Thanks

November 17, 2013


Transferring the plural quality to the direct object clitic in the presence of the indirect object "se" seems like a common "error" that has gained acceptance in certain areas.

See section 6.b. of the following link: http://lema.rae.es/dpd/srv/search?id=elLl31yYnD65MTS9uF

August 23, 2014


I don't get this either. It seems a little weird.

December 11, 2013


I don't understand when the "lo" is needed, and when it can be implied; why is it needed with Se (los) but not with Te he dicho ?

September 2, 2013


See this link, it provides further explanation as to when the direct object can be implied or understood: http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/iopro1.htm

The DO "los" is not needed in this sentence, but it's not incorrect to include it if you want to. Duolingo provided two examples, one with and one without, which is causing some confusion. I don't believe whether the sentence uses the formal "le" or the informal "te" has anything to do with it.

EDIT - OK, here's what I don't get. Why does this sentence use the reflexive "se" instead of the IDO "le" ?

September 3, 2013


'le' and 'les' both become 'se' when used before 'lo/la/los/las'. http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/iodopro.htm

September 15, 2013


Aha! Mystery solved. Thanks for the link.

September 15, 2013


accepted - te he dicho muchas veces

September 21, 2013


Same here. The correct translation now appears as: Se los he dicho muchas veces. Why the "los"?

November 6, 2013


It seems to me it's because there was more than one time. If the sentence was "I told you that before," then los would not be required.

April 2, 2014


Having looked at direct and indirect objects last night I think I have got the hang of it now. Hence, to answer my own question: The "los" stands for "muchas veces" where He dicho = subject; muchas veces = direct object; los = direct object; and se(le) = indirect object.

November 18, 2013


No, that can't possibly be correct, because if the direct object pronoun had "muchas veces" as its antecedent/referent, it would be las, not los.

April 16, 2014


Hmmm, good point. That means I am still confused. :-(

April 16, 2014


I can imagine some context where there is an antecedent earlier in the conversation that makes sense of the "los". Like, we were discussing the titles (los títulos) of a series of books, and then you asked me about them again, and I respond, "¡Te los he dicho muchas veces!" Jeez, I've told them to you many times!

But I have trouble getting to "los" from "I have told you many times," with no other context and no "them" to indicate the plural. It actually seems wrong.

April 16, 2014


For "I have told you many times.", the "Correct solutions" are "Te he dicho muchas veces." "Se los he dicho muchas veces."

Why not "Los he dicho muchas veces."?

August 13, 2013


Well, you need to have the indirect object "you" in the sentence, either informal (te) or formal (se). Your sentence translates as "I have told it many times".

What I don't quite get is why Duolingo accepts "te he dicho muchas veces" as an alternate translation. Isn't the direct object "lo" (implied "it) necessary in this particular sentence?

EDIT: I found this page: http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/verbs_using_indirect_objects.htm, which says that it is common with verbs of communication (hablar, decir) to use indirect object pronouns. So evidently "lo" can be implied in this sentence and is not absolutely needed?

August 21, 2013


What is wrong with te he dicho muchos tiempos

March 12, 2014


"Tiempo" means time in a more abstract sense. "Vez" means time in the sense of a particular point in time or occasion.

There's more discussion of the difference here: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/2151/vez-vs-tiempo

April 16, 2014


Why does "te" have to be before "he"? Thanks

March 24, 2014


The clitic pronouns in Spanish always appear either before the verb, or tacked onto the end of certain verbs. They can be attached to the end of infinitives, commands, and gerunds / progressives. They're obligatorily tacked onto the end of commands, but can be "promoted" back to before the primary verb with the other two cases.


Since the past participle doesn't allow you to attach the clitic at the end, the "te" or "se" here is necessarily left of the main verb, "he".

April 16, 2014



May 7, 2014


I wish I could give you a bunch of lingots for your series of comments in this thread - greatly helpful - but I can't find the "give a lingot" on this page. Thanks a lot for these explanations!

July 26, 2017


Se los he dicho muchas veces,, I think this sentence is not grammatical in Spanish,,, the way for plural is "Os lo he dicho muchas veces" (a vosotros).

April 20, 2016


What about using contar instead of decir?

February 16, 2014


I could see that. When you use "contar" for tell, the connotations are like "recount" or "narrate" -- it implies that you're telling a story, or narrating a series of events. So:

Es una buena historia, pero te la he contado muchas veces.

It's a good story, but I've told it to you many times.

April 16, 2014


i tried ''los he dicho muchas veces." but the correct answer was ''se los he dicho muchas veces.'' Why do I need to use ''se''?

July 14, 2014


"I have told you many times" = "Te/le/les/os he dicho muchas veces". The word "you" has to be an indirect object pronoun, because you are telling something TO the person.

The "correct answer" it gave you is not a correct translation, although it is a correct sentence. It means "I have told you them many times". "Them" could be referring to, for example, stories, or numbers, or whatever. So, "them" = "los" (direct object pronoun), and since they are being formal, "you" = "le" or "les" (singular or plural). BUT IF you would end up with an indirect object pronoun and a direct object pronoun together where they both start with the letter L, then the indirect object pronoun changes to the invariable "se" regardless of whether it's plural or singular. So, "I have told you them many times" = *"le los he dicho muchas veces" = "se los he dicho muchas veces".

the * means the following sentence is grammatically incorrect. It would be "le los" but they don't say that, they say "se los" instead.

June 22, 2016


"os he dicho muchas veces" <sub>~</sub>~ wondering why it's marked wrong?

September 4, 2014


Why would "se los..." be equivalent to "te lo..." ? We're not meaning "I've told them to you many times," are we?

September 17, 2015


I still don't understand why " los " is in the sentence.

April 8, 2016


nope. this translation is wrong. how do I report without doing a trillion lessons waiting for the sentence to come up again?

June 22, 2016


What is the "Se" there for? Are they using the reflexive form? If so, why?

September 4, 2016


why not "vos he dicho muchas veces"

October 7, 2016


This appears to be a case of some what unspecific grammer. From the lucid explanation of Auros Harman I understand the use of "se" (from indirect object le) and the obligatory need to use a direct object with decir. But I am still not clear should it be "lo" or "los" and why so.

February 1, 2017


«Ya te dije muchas veces.» Anyone know why this is wrong?

December 29, 2017


My head is spinning reading all these comments on "se". I still feel lost!

February 6, 2018


The program is showing me Se , not Te: Se lo he dicho muchas veces. I don't understand the "se"

July 11, 2018


Why is it not mucho veces?

January 11, 2019


Why not "te dijiste"? There is not object

July 20, 2019
Learn Spanish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.