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"I have told you many times."

Translation:Te lo he dicho muchas veces.

5 years ago

43 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/lesorton

What does the "lo" do? I would translate is as: I have told you it many times

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rspreng

You are right. "lo" is a direct object pronoun that is the "it" that is untranslated, but understood, in the English

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/marianne.w4

But in some other sentence. It was with out the lo

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/marianne.w4

There was this sentence without the lo. Porque tú no me has dicho. When to add it and when to cross it out

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

With the verb decir, my understanding (though this could well be a regional thing) is that if you're going to have an indirect object (to whom your speech is directed), then a direct object (what was said) is obligatory, even if it's just the abstract clitic "lo".

What I don't understand is why the canonical translation above uses "los" rather than just "lo".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dexpanyol
dexpanyol
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Transferring the plural quality to the direct object clitic in the presence of the indirect object "se" seems like a common "error" that has gained acceptance in certain areas.

See section 6.b. of the following link: http://lema.rae.es/dpd/srv/search?id=elLl31yYnD65MTS9uF

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

Fascinating! For anyone else who's following that link and having trouble with the content, here's my effort at a translation:

b) En el español de muchos países de América, es frecuente, especialmente en registros populares o coloquiales, trasladar a la forma singular del pronombre átono de acusativo en función de complemento directo el rasgo de plural correspondiente al complemento indirecto, cuando este va representado por la forma invariable se: «¡No entienden que este es mi espacio, es mi lugar! Cuántas veces quieren que se los diga» (Purroy Desertor [Ven. 1989]), en lugar de Cuántas veces quieren que se LO diga. Aunque en algunos países esta transferencia indebida se ha extendido incluso entre hablantes cultos, se recomienda evitarla en el habla esmerada.

b) In the Spanish of many American countries, it's common, especially in popular or colloquial registers, to transform the singular unstressed accusative complement serving as a direct object, to have the plurality trait corresponding to the indirect complement when this is represented by the invariable form se. "They don't understand that this is my space, it's my place! How many times do they want me to tell them?!" (I think the citation means this comes from a source titled Desertor by an author named Purroy, published in Venezuela in 1989.) The latter clause, with los, is used in place of Cuántas veces quieren que se LO diga. Although in some countries this improper transformation has extended even to educated speakers, it is recommended that the careful speaker avoid it.

So, I guess it at least is acceptable, in some dialects of large portions of the Americas, as long as the "you" involved are plural.

Still, it seems like the "lo" version should be canonical.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/daniellberglund

What is wrong with "le he dicho muchas veces"? (Assume that I am using the formal form instead of the familiar form.)

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

As noted above, when you give decir an indirect object, I think in at least the dialect I learned, giving it a direct object of some kind is obligatory. That can be an actual clause: Le dije que la quiero. I told her that I love her. It can be a noun phrase: Le dije la historia. I told her the story. (Edited to add: I think I'd probably choose "contar" for this particular case. But I think it's at least "legal" to do it with decir.) You also can put in the literal thing that's being said: Le dije «¡Adiós!» I said to him, "Goodbye!" If you don't have ANY direct object, you toss in "lo", to give it one.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/joakandr
joakandr
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Nothing, that is correct. I just reported it.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/learnTACO32

I understand everything about the construction of this sentence except the use of LOS. I have told(it) to you(se) many times. Why the need to assume that "what I have told you" MUST be pluralized. Thanks

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dexpanyol
dexpanyol
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Transferring the plural quality to the direct object clitic in the presence of the indirect object "se" seems like a common "error" that has gained acceptance in certain areas.

See section 6.b. of the following link: http://lema.rae.es/dpd/srv/search?id=elLl31yYnD65MTS9uF

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Isager
Isager
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I don't get this either. It seems a little weird.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/junevilleco

I don't understand when the "lo" is needed, and when it can be implied; why is it needed with Se (los) but not with Te he dicho ?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kassandra8286
kassandra8286
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See this link, it provides further explanation as to when the direct object can be implied or understood: http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/iopro1.htm

The DO "los" is not needed in this sentence, but it's not incorrect to include it if you want to. Duolingo provided two examples, one with and one without, which is causing some confusion. I don't believe whether the sentence uses the formal "le" or the informal "te" has anything to do with it.

EDIT - OK, here's what I don't get. Why does this sentence use the reflexive "se" instead of the IDO "le" ?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/burdockeel

'le' and 'les' both become 'se' when used before 'lo/la/los/las'. http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/iodopro.htm

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kassandra8286
kassandra8286
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Aha! Mystery solved. Thanks for the link.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Pannychis

accepted - te he dicho muchas veces

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Caversham
Caversham
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Same here. The correct translation now appears as: Se los he dicho muchas veces. Why the "los"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/geneven
genevenPlus
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It seems to me it's because there was more than one time. If the sentence was "I told you that before," then los would not be required.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lechuza-chouette
Lechuza-chouette
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For "I have told you many times.", the "Correct solutions" are "Te he dicho muchas veces." "Se los he dicho muchas veces."

Why not "Los he dicho muchas veces."?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kassandra8286
kassandra8286
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Well, you need to have the indirect object "you" in the sentence, either informal (te) or formal (se). Your sentence translates as "I have told it many times".

What I don't quite get is why Duolingo accepts "te he dicho muchas veces" as an alternate translation. Isn't the direct object "lo" (implied "it) necessary in this particular sentence?

EDIT: I found this page: http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/verbs_using_indirect_objects.htm, which says that it is common with verbs of communication (hablar, decir) to use indirect object pronouns. So evidently "lo" can be implied in this sentence and is not absolutely needed?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/osmond24
osmond24
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What is wrong with te he dicho muchos tiempos

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

"Tiempo" means time in a more abstract sense. "Vez" means time in the sense of a particular point in time or occasion.

There's more discussion of the difference here: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/2151/vez-vs-tiempo

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/daisy211
daisy211
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Why does "te" have to be before "he"? Thanks

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

The clitic pronouns in Spanish always appear either before the verb, or tacked onto the end of certain verbs. They can be attached to the end of infinitives, commands, and gerunds / progressives. They're obligatorily tacked onto the end of commands, but can be "promoted" back to before the primary verb with the other two cases.

http://www.staff.ncl.ac.uk/i.e.mackenzie/clitics.htm

Since the past participle doesn't allow you to attach the clitic at the end, the "te" or "se" here is necessarily left of the main verb, "he".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/daisy211
daisy211
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Okay.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lulularosa
lulularosa
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I wish I could give you a bunch of lingots for your series of comments in this thread - greatly helpful - but I can't find the "give a lingot" on this page. Thanks a lot for these explanations!

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/alejandrocarmo
alejandrocarmo
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Se los he dicho muchas veces,, I think this sentence is not grammatical in Spanish,,, the way for plural is "Os lo he dicho muchas veces" (a vosotros).

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kathryn.dr1

What about using contar instead of decir?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

I could see that. When you use "contar" for tell, the connotations are like "recount" or "narrate" -- it implies that you're telling a story, or narrating a series of events. So:

Es una buena historia, pero te la he contado muchas veces.

It's a good story, but I've told it to you many times.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/exemerson
exemerson
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i tried ''los he dicho muchas veces." but the correct answer was ''se los he dicho muchas veces.'' Why do I need to use ''se''?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rilianxi
rilianxi
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"I have told you many times" = "Te/le/les/os he dicho muchas veces". The word "you" has to be an indirect object pronoun, because you are telling something TO the person.

The "correct answer" it gave you is not a correct translation, although it is a correct sentence. It means "I have told you them many times". "Them" could be referring to, for example, stories, or numbers, or whatever. So, "them" = "los" (direct object pronoun), and since they are being formal, "you" = "le" or "les" (singular or plural). BUT IF you would end up with an indirect object pronoun and a direct object pronoun together where they both start with the letter L, then the indirect object pronoun changes to the invariable "se" regardless of whether it's plural or singular. So, "I have told you them many times" = *"le los he dicho muchas veces" = "se los he dicho muchas veces".

the * means the following sentence is grammatically incorrect. It would be "le los" but they don't say that, they say "se los" instead.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/junolynn

"os he dicho muchas veces" <sub>~</sub>~ wondering why it's marked wrong?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lupeeloo

Why would "se los..." be equivalent to "te lo..." ? We're not meaning "I've told them to you many times," are we?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PuertoRico_7213

I still don't understand why " los " is in the sentence.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rilianxi
rilianxi
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nope. this translation is wrong. how do I report without doing a trillion lessons waiting for the sentence to come up again?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ElaineShin
ElaineShin
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What is the "Se" there for? Are they using the reflexive form? If so, why?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/guilth
guilth
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why not "vos he dicho muchas veces"

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nscbose
nscbose
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This appears to be a case of some what unspecific grammer. From the lucid explanation of Auros Harman I understand the use of "se" (from indirect object le) and the obligatory need to use a direct object with decir. But I am still not clear should it be "lo" or "los" and why so.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/awittcop

«Ya te dije muchas veces.» Anyone know why this is wrong?

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Discopig-11
Discopig-11
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My head is spinning reading all these comments on "se". I still feel lost!

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sleazel

The program is showing me Se , not Te: Se lo he dicho muchas veces. I don't understand the "se"

2 months ago