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  5. "D'après les enfants, non"

"D'après les enfants, non"

Translation:According to the children, no

March 2, 2013



when do you use d'après and when selon?


They are synonymous.

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For once - hooray! Thanks for the clarification, Sitesurf.


in what context could you use this phrase?


It would be clearer with "according to the children, no" with is a bit of a conversation. you may imagine Mom and Dad discussing: - Did my friend XX call when we were both away? (Est-ce que mon ami XX a appelé pendant que nous étions sortis tous les deux ?) - According to the children, no. (D'après les enfants, non.)


This is a much better transaltion of the french sentence.


Then is there a difference between "Selon les enfants" and "D'après les enfants"?


No difference, strictly interchangeable.


Is there any connotation for either term? I'm just curious as to why one of the two ways hasn't died out.


If it were English, and this used to exist in English ("After so-and-so, . . ."), it had more the feel of passing on their words in the manner they were expressed. More visceral and to an effect than just dryly reporting on them . . .


Great example. Thanks! :)


Might you write "les enfants" in a situation where an English speaker would say "my children?" I know that "my children" would literally be "mes enfants", but are you more likely to use the definite pronoun where an English speaker would use a possessive?


I don't think there is any difference in usage between En and Fr on this specific point.

You can call your children "mes enfants" or "les enfants" and you can talk about them to a third party using "mes" or "les".

A teacher can also address kids with "mes/les" enfants, un peu de calme, s'il vous plaît !".

The only thing you cannot do in French is calling them people with no determiner: "hi, girls!" = "salut les filles !"


How can I tell the spoken difference between "le enfant" and "les enfants" if there is no verb? Is there some subtle pronunciation of the s that I'm not hearing ?


Go to Google translate and enter l'enfant and then les enfants so you can hear a very distinct difference.


les enfants should have a liason


"le enfant" never exists as two separate words, and always contracts to l'enfant, while the les of les enfants has an audible s, both because of the initial vowel on Enfant, so the pronunciations are actually very distinct, imagine it as how you would say lenfant and lezenfants (if such words existed in French) and you can spot the difference easily


why can't it be 'from the children, no'.

Duolingo states D'apres can mean 'from'.


that non sounded like a quick english 'mmhhhmm' when your angry


still negative, isn't it?


Why is non on the end incorrect? Is that an error, because duolingo recommended "no" or "not."


why can't it be for the children, no?


How can you tell, when to use the plural and the singular in French?

"D'aprés les enfants" sounds like "D'aprés le enfant"

How can I tell, they talk about childen or a child ?


les = the plural

le = the singular

les and le are easily distinguished.

Since the modifier must agree in number with the noun and If the modifier/article (les) is plural, then you know the noun is plural.


Le sounds more like "lu" and les sounds more like "lay."


In the plural form, you can hear the liaison (sounds like "lezenfants") . Singular is "l'enfant".


I want it to sound "non" more clearly..


. I thought that non was no. This has always been correct.When does it mean Not


Does this sentence ("According to the children, no") feel natural to English natives? Put another way, would it be ok to answer, say, "Does the computer work?" and "Did Mark call?" with "According to the children, no"?

My impression so far was that English almost required repeating the question's subject and verb, i.e. that the natural answers to those examples would be "According to the children, it doesn't" and "According to the children, he didn't". Is it just a matter of formal vs informal? Is it that my examples are actually badly chosen and I overlooked other cases where ", no" is better? Something else? :)


Those examples are good, and it's a matter of formal vs informal. (I'd say, though, that it's "more formal vs more informal", not necessarily a clear split between them.)


Got it, thank you!


English has SO many correct ways of saying essentially the same thing, and it sometimes comes down to personal preference. Either of your examples (...., no or..., he didn't) sound fine to me, and we could also say 'Not according to the children.' Sometimes the different correct translations might have slight variations in formality, nuance, ie which part of the sentence you are emphasising, but that's not always the case.


According to my dictionary "aprés" = after, afterwards, etc. Why is not "After the children, no" an approved translation? I'm Swedish!


Your dictionary is right, but "d'après" means something different: "according to" (French synonym: selon).


I simply cannot hear the difference between le enfant and les enfants. Does anyone else have this problem?


"le enfant" is improper French, so you should never hear it.

In singular, "l'enfant" is the correct spelling, with an elision (replacement of the -e- by an apostrophe to avoid the vowel sound hiatus); and in plural "les enfants" is pronounced LEZ-enfants.

When "le" is placed before a word starting with a consonant, like "le vin", it sounds LUH.


DL corrected me with "To the children " makes no sense to me


i think using infants is correct


"enfant" looks like "infant" but it does not mean that.

un enfant = a child

an infant = un nourrisson, un nouveau-né


in this instance, "in the opinion of" drew red. But "according to my wife" is not something I would say if she could hear it, unless I wanted to provoke her to distinguish between mere opinion and the genuine facts she always presents. I say this knowing she is studying Italian, while I am here laboring in a more northern vineyard.

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