59 Comments
Report that. Because that IS what it means. Must or have to. Either should work.
Oblow89, that is. “ Tengo que ir a la escuela”. In the sentence, there is a “la”. “La” means “The”.
it is confusing because ir= to go. so when i translate it I think I say i have to to go
In English, "I have to go to school" and "I have to go to the school" are slightly different thoughts. The former suggests going to classes, the latter to a building. How would one express that in Spanish?
1116
I always notice when watching British TV shows that they say "go to hospital". In English, we do say "go to school" AND "go to the school", indicating that it is a specific school, but we never say "go to hospital"....
- 1581
Do you mean: "in US English"? (British) English speakers most certainly do say "go to hospital"; e.g. "You have a serious injury there, don't mess about, just go to hospital".
Oh yes we do. I think it's only when you're going as a patient, though. If you're visiting, I think it's "go to the hospital". (My tuppence worth.)
Oh no we don't. We always 'go to THE hospital". At least on the entire east coast. Maybe it's different in the midwest.
I put "I need to go to school". Isn't this the same as I must and I have? Just before I report it...
"Need to" and "have to" are two different things. You can say "I have to eat healthy (because my dad said so)," but you may not "need to eat healthy" if you already are healthy
- 14
You can say "I need to eat healthy (because my dad said so)", but you may not "have to eat healthy" if you already are.
See? They're completely interchangeable in most situations, at least to me. What's the difference to you?
[2019/05/13]
same as reinhild: I translated the sentence: I must go to school. Why is that wrong?? anyone?
Maybe no one reported it, I will, since I am at the report button option. To me, 'must do something' and 'have to do something' are the same in English. However the verb 'deber' + infinitive is also used to mean 'must' in Spanish but deber is more used like that you 'should or ought to' rather than the English 'must'.
Have I missed something here but we are learning spanish and not how spanish should conform to english meaning; and it would be like spanish speakers learning english and translating 'have' as 'must' all the time. They are 2 different words, so best accept and move on?
Correct - I think people are scared they arent getting things right which lets the "i should just give up thoughts creep in". I wonder if Spanish people learning English just use one word when we say must, need, etc etc. People need to stop fighting what duo is trying to teach. We arent even halfway through the course
In other sentences and examples there is a "me" added before "tengo." Such as: Me tengo que ir ahora / Me tengo que ir inmediatamente. Why is there no "me" in this sentence? The inconsistency is very confusing.
- 14
I'm at home. School starts in fifteen minutes. I attend school, I'm just not at there. I have to go to school.
I put "I need to go to school" is it wrong because necesitar is the verb for need? In english need and must are interchangeable
Im just never sure when and when not to use the before a word where it wouldnt be in English
- 14
That's "I have go to school", like go to school is some sort of disease. Tengo que + infinitive is a common Spanish expression translated as "to have to". [2019/05/13]
do you guys think it would be acceptable (even if quite informal) to say "I've got to go to school"?
Diego7o'clock - I've said that when there was something really good happening at school or after missing a lot of days...lol i don't think this sentence would tranlate to "I've got to" but I'm no expert. But i don't see where it is not correct grammar.
I don't think ought and have imply the same meaning. "Ought to" implies - I really should go but I'm probably not but maybe i will, that there is a choice. "Have to" implies - For all of the above reasons i can not miss school, it is not an option. I hope that helps.
- 1116
I thought tengo was reserved for actual possession and the various forms of he / has/ has were reserved to be the auxiliary verb
You have the right idea, but . . . . ;) "Tener que" followed by an infinitive is a VERY common Spanish expression that translates to "must" or "have to." The "have" that you see in English is not a translation of "haber," it is there to make sense in English. Tengo que ir = I must go, tienes que comer = you must eat, and so on. "Tener" is involved in several expression that you'll need to get used to. "Tener hambre" is to be hungry, "tener frio" is to be cold, "tener prisa" is to be in a hurry -- and many more! :)
- 114
Thank you, rspreng, for this extra lesson! I always look forward to your posts here.
Interesting. I didn't know that. I was wondering why Qué was in there at all.
- 14
Not qué, que. Que without the tilde here is a particle, whioe qué with the tilde is a question word. [2019/05/13]
Yup. And so even though I've SHOULD be a good contraction for I have, it doesn't work in all situations. "I've to go" doesn't work but "I have to" does. Just as it would sound weird to hear "I have got it" but "I've got it" would be perfectly ok!
- 85
'I've to go to school' is not good English! 'I have to go to school' and 'I must go to school' are exactly the same thing!!
wrote "i have to go to school"
and in English, you can say "Have to" or "must" both meaning the same thing.
Duolingo say's "I've got to go to school" is wrong. Now I'm wondering about "I gotta go to school".
same ....i put....... I must go to school . also do not understand why it is wrong.
Why has the "I must go school" option not been corrected so that it is accepted?
What are the rules on using the articles in reverse translating. In this sentence we don't say the "la" in la escuela when we translate to English but how do we know when to include them if we were translating, i have to go to school, from English to Spanish. Saying, i have to go to "the" school is a bit different, as in, my kid is in a play and i have to go to the school tomorrow to see it. Anyone? Thank You! :)
