11 Comments
I really can't seem to understand how the verb means 'i am drinking' or 'i drink'. Can somebody please explain?
Why does it sound as if she's saying "trinkten"? I noticed this extra "t" with some other word as well, but can't remember which.
There's no extra /t/. What you're interpreting as a /t/ is actually a glottal stop.
Hello. (It's a good place showing appreciation to all dear friends who have tried to do the best for information society development at the first point). I've a question. If "Wein" in this sentence is accusative so why don't we use "den" (because it's a masculine noun)? Does it have any special reason? Thanks (We say it {mean thanks} in Farsi or Persian "Sepasgozaram").
Which case to use and whether to use an article are independent of each other.
Using a particular case does not mean that you always use an article or never use an article.
Wein in this sentence is accusative, because it's the object of trinken.
And it has no article because we are not drinking "the wine" (some specific quantity that we had spoken about before), but simply "wine" (an unspecific quantity of the uncountable substance).
The choice to use an article or not is completely independent of the requirement to use the accusative case.
Without an article, it does mean that you can't see that Wein is in the accusative case. But that's not a problem.
Thank you my brother. It's our pleasure to see your comments in many posts. You are very active and that's why you are a popular face here. thanks again. We do not need to use definite mark in any case.
