That's right. A word can become dative if it's the indirect object in a sentence or if following one of these words or their variations: aus, außer, bei, gegenüber, mit, nach, seit, von, zu.
I'm not a native speaker so there may be something that needs correcting, or other rules for Dative.
Quote from wordreference forum: "This is an old dative inflection that has basically gone out of style but nonetheless remains with certain words or expressions. Since 'nach Hause' is so common, the -e has stayed." We ahve our own explanation here somewhere, but I can't find it (it basically says the same thing).
Shouldn't "I will run to your house" also be accepted? Imagine: "come quick, I have the latest cr*ppy iPhone" and you answer "Ok, I'll run to your house now". Couldn't the German be "Ich renne (jetzt) zu deinem Haus"? Just curious.
I know it's Ich werde rennen... literally but we can also say "I'm running to your house" in English even though we haven't set off yet so we actually mean in the future.
I didn't put this by the way, just wondering!
In a way, you're correct. But I'm running over to your house and I will run over are separate verb forms. Present progressive and future imply different times. There's a certain immediacy implied when you say "I'm running over" it's like your saying that you've already started doing it. Whereas "I will come over" has a sense of nebulousness to it. The same can be said of German. Ich renne zu deinem Hause vs ich werde zu deinem Hause rennen.
No. Because zum is a contraction of zu+dem. And dein is possessive. Possessives take the place of the article. Therefore zum cannot be used here. And deine is only applicable in the nominative and accusative cases for feminine nouns. Haus is neuter and weak. Thus it becomes Hause in the dative. For neuter the indefinite article in the dative case is einem. Since possessives preform the same way as the indefinite articles dein=>deinem.
I understand that if "zu" is in a sentence, it automatically becomes dative but one of the rules for something to be dative there's no movement or there's movement but only in a certain space. Accusative is when movement is to and from a place but one of the examples for accusative is, "I'm walking into a house." So in German that would be, "Ich gehe in einem Hause." So if this sentence follows the acc. rule why is einem conjugated in the dative case?
The reason that it's dative has only to do with the preposition. Zu is a dative preposition and therefore it matters not in what way it's used. It's always dative. There are prepositions that are accusative, dative genitive and switch. In is a switch. When used as 'into' or with a verb that implies movement, it's accusative. So: Ich gehe in einen Haus or "Ich gehe zu einem Hause." The rule of which you speak only applies to switch prepositions. For nach and zu they are only dative and as such that rule doesn't apply.
Nach actually means after. But this is one of many idiosyncrasies of German. in (+ accusative), nach, zu, and auf (+ accusative) can all mean "to". The reason I mention the accusative for in and auf is because in means the same thing as in English when used with the dative. And "auf" actually means on (a surface) when used with the same. With nach, typically you would use this with towns, cities, states/ provinces, and countries. One would say "Ich gehe nach Deutschland." but would say, "Ich gehe in den Markt.". The strange outlier is Haus(e). If one says "Ich gehe nach Hause" It means "I go home." but someone could say, "Ich gehe ins Haus" and here it would mean "I go to the house." "zu deinem Haus", while correct grammatically, is not typically said. Most would probably say "Ich renne zu dir nach Hause."
Simply put, because 'zu' still means and is used to mean 'to'. In fact they share a common ancestor. Generally zu is used in the way you described when saying one is at their own home. In fact, the word used to mean "Home" more generally in German is "die Zuhause". So when a person is at their own home, they'd say: Ich bin zu Hause. or at a the house of the person to whom their speaking: Ich bin zu dir, (or Ihnen depending on formality of the situation). But if they are on the phone and saying the sentence above the person will know based on the fact that they are saying 'deinem Haus' that they are using the original sense of 'zu' to mean 'to'.
I'm not native, though, so if someone more familiar with the language would like to expand on my explanation, feel free.
short answer is: kind of. adding an 'e' suffix in the dative case used to occur with weak nouns "Haus" is a weak noun and as such became "Hause" when in the dative case. However this paradigm has been mostly dropped. it remains in only certain phrases such as "nach Hause" [homeward] and "zu Hause" [at home]; in every other case, you don't inflect the nouns in German. you only inflect the adjectives and the articles. At least, that's what I was taught in my German classes at college.
Zu is both too and to. zum is actually a contraction of zu and dem. So when using something other than the definite article dem you only need zu. This is also the case with zur. Which comes from zu and der. German is kind of funny in that when zu and a definite article are used you have to use the contraction. But only zu is used when the indefinite articles are used (einem, einer, keinen) and considering that possessives are treated as indefinite articles in German, you don't use a contraction.