"I like to eat fries."
Translation:J'aime manger des frites.
In the context of "manger des frites", both "aime" and "aime bien" convey the notion of "like". Here is Duolingo's convention regarding "aimer" and "adorer":
- aimer = love (with people and one's pets)
- aimer bien = like (or like very much) with people. It is less strong than "aimer".
- aimer = like (with things)
- aimer bien = like (very much) with things
- adorer = to love (with people or things), adore (people, things, actions), adore/worship (religious) : choose the best fitting word for the context.
I think that's due to the infinitive verb "manger". At least in portuguese (another latin language) it is preferable not to put an article before nouns in phrases like that... Notice that "I like to eat fries" (des frites) is different from "I like to eat these fries' (les frites)
I agree the meaning would be the same in both cases. However, I wrote "J'aime manger des frites", and it didn't suggest "J'aime bien" as an alternate. They must have changed it?
But if you were speaking about a person, "J'aime x" would imply romantic feelings, while "J'aime bien x" would just be that you like them.
"mange" is present tense ... talking about eating right now ... but "manger" is "infinitive" tense - you always like eating chips - in the past, in the future, in the present - always ... it's the concept of eating that you're talking about, not one specific occasion.
I am enjoying eating (these?) chips
I enjoy eating chips
in face neither of the two answers is a real translation because the tem "I like to each chips" is in English , it shoul really ask for a translation of I like to eat some chips, the French J'aime bien manger des fritts would be a translation from the English of " I like to eat some good chips", it seems impossible at times to second guess what the answer they want really is !!
'J'aime bien manger des frites' means you really like eating fries/chips, not that you like eating good fries/chips. 'Bien' is an adverb and is connected to 'aime'. Howerer, in English you can't really say 'I like eating fries/chips well', that would sound weird, so you just say 'I like eating fries'. 'I like to eat some good chips' would be 'J'aime manger des bonnes frites'.
I wrote 'j'aime mange des frites' Why is that wrong!?!?!?!? I have wrote down that when you are talking about yourself and using 'Je' it is 'mange' not 'manger'! So i used 'mange' and its wrong apparently, apparently your supposed to use 'manger' which is the infinitive! Put your not meant to use the infinitive are you? Your supposed to let who's talking agree with the verb! Help plz :( rant over
When you use aimer, adorer, préférer or détester, you use 'les' instead of 'des' in front of the object. However, in the sentence 'J'aime manger des frites', you 'aime' 'manger (des frites)'; while 'des frites' is the object of 'manger', the object of 'aimer' is 'manger'. Because 'des frites' is not the object of aime, you don't use les.
I am so so so confused. The question I answered previously told me that "des frites" was wrong as it was talking about fries as a whole, therefore the answer would be "les frites". Now for this question my answer includes "les frites" and I am told that it is wrong and that "des frites" is correct?? Somebody please explain.
Just saying, I'm taking the placement test, and "des" translates to "of the." I've always been taught by my teachers to say "J'aime manger les frites." as "des frites" would mean "I like to eat of the fries." That just doesn't make much sense... Anybody have clarification for why this is so?
'Des' is not just the contraction of 'de' and 'les', meaning 'of the'. It's also the plural indefinite article, meaning 'some' and often not translated. So 'J'aime manger des frites' means 'I like to eat some fries' of 'I like to eat fries', where 'J'aime manger les frites' would be 'I like to eat the fries'.