1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Polish
  4. >
  5. "Pomagałbym biednym, gdybym m…

"Pomagałbym biednym, gdybym miał czas."

Translation:I would help the poor if I had time.

May 28, 2017

22 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/WarsawWill

"I would be helping the poor" means I would be in the process of doing it now. Does that fit with the Polish?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mihxal

It probably means that I would do it constantly not just now.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Guzmanowic

is it possible to replace Jeśli miałbym with gdybym mial czas?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AndreaKacp1

Pomagałbym is a future tense of I would be helping.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jellei

Well, I'd say that the Polish conditional doesn't really have a tense - it could be present, past... future? I'm not sure... actually I cannot imagine a future interpretation here...


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Nami109

In my opinion it would be in present - if I would have time I would do this now (for sure my english conditional is wrong here but I never do this correct... :'( Still difficult for me...)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Kohvikruus

Why not use "would" in both subclauses? "I would help the poor if I would have the time."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BenYoung84

That's not standard English. Usually the clause with "if" is subjunctive and uses "were" or past tense, whereas the other clause is conditional and uses "would".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Shiroy233

I wrote "If I had time, I would help the poor", it considered me wrong.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/akikotsukamoto

" If I had time I would help the poor" is wrong?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jellei

It's turned the other way round, but I guess we may accept it. Added.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DerrickMcClure1

What's the difference between GDYBY and GDYBYM?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/alik1989

gdyby is third person singular/plural (he/she/it/they)
gdybym is first person singular (I)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DerrickMcClure1

So what part of speech is the word? I thought it was a conjunction.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/alik1989

gdy is a conjunction. The rest are particles which are glued onto it. Here's a detailed explanation:

https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/42198420?comment_id=42199780


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DerrickMcClure1

I see - many thanks! (WHAT a complicated language...)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Mario627812

We need money to help the poor, not time :)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/F4yY9kZj

'Biedny' standing alone as a noun means the poor, not a poor (individual) person?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jellei

I think only plural (masculine personal plural - imagine that it describes the word "ludzie") can serve as a noun. Maybe for some other adjectives it can behave a bit differently, but nothing comes to my mind. I'm just saying that I can't be 100% sure it will always be only that plural. Unless you want to say something like "the poor one", that could possibly work in singular, but that's a different situation.

That's what we have here, "biednym" is the Dative form of "biedni" (possibly also of "biedne", but that would also rather be "the poor ones" about some women).

Learn Polish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.