"No me gusta este tipo de casa."
Translation:I do not like this type of house.
Literally, the sentence is saying "This type of house is not pleasing to me." "This type of house" is the subject, and "I/me" am/is the indirect object ('me' is the indirect object pronoun). "gustar" and its relatives operate in much the same way 'fascinates' works in English. We usually find a way to translate "gustar" sentences as "liking" sentences, but 'gustar' does not mean 'to like,' but 'to be pleasing to,' and it takes indirect object pronouns that can be clarified by "a" phrases. "A ella le gusta este tipo de casa." = She likes this type of house.
However, the phrase "this type of house does not please me" is marked incorrect.
I was offering an explanation, a way for an English speaking learner to better understand the concept -- not suggesting Duo would accept the translation.
And at the same time, both translations would be considered correct. So I submitted a request to update.
Am I the only one who does not like the English version without the indefinite article here? Looks weird, sounds rough.
ETA: I stand corrected. Still sounds to me like the rhythm is all wrong, my foreign brain wants to insert the "a" (...this type of A house...), but the problem is mine. Native speakers apparently say THIS TYPE OF house, car, situation, system...overwhelmingly without following it with an article.
Where would you put the article ('a')? in front of house? I can imagine someone saying it that way, but it sounds a little better to me without the 'a'.
Funny enough, I learned the word "tipo" from the back of a shampoo bottle. I suppose it's not a bad idea to be practicing Spanish constantly.
No, I don't think so. As I understand it:
When you use gustar to mean appeal the verb is intransitive; that is you would say "Esta casa no gusta", "This house does not appeal".
If you want to say "This house does not appeal to me" you would use atraer and say "Esta casa no me atrae".