"Jamás lo has permitido."
Translation:You have never allowed it.
Is Jamás different from nunca at all or do they basically mean the same thing.
Stick with the simplest correct translation and avoid the literary or poetic English versions. We are here to learn Spanish, not to show off our English skills.
It's not wrong. The placement would slightly change the emphasis, but it should have counted.
I am not a native English speaker but as far as I know "have" in this sentence is an auxiliary verb and the adverb must follow it
It is not absolutely necessary that the adverb must follow have; that is just the most common, most natural construction.
When you stray from that order the result can be awkward constructions, archaic/literary constructions, or constructions that create slight changes in emphasis.
These create sentences that people typically would not use in day-to-day speach; as, Never have you allowed it, you never have allowed it, etc.
Exactly. That was my interpretation: You have never allowed him; And it was marked wrong :.( DAFUQ. I'm going to report it.
You never have allowed it is the same as You have never allowed it. Placement of the modifier does make a difference, only in style or in emphasis depending on what the writer wants to emphasize.
"Never have you permitted it" is not acceptable. Is there a reason that my answer was incorrect ?