Not too long ago, it was considered incorrect to "You and me walked in the night." Now, however, in many contexts, not just American but in Australian and New Zealand contexts lots of people won't bat an eye if you say "You and me...", because language changes over time and this has come to be accepted in many contexts, apart from certain formal registers or people correcting for correcting's sake (when there is nothing to correct lol). In response to newdoc's comment, I agree that you don't say "me walked at night," but this does not change the fact that it is common when the first person pronoun forms a pair with another. So you'll hear stuff like "You and me did this," or "Me and my wife did that."
No, I mean not too long ago in most English registers, whereas today it is acceptable in many English registers and considered grammatically correct. What people need to understand with grammar is that the rules are fluid, not fixed from the foundation of the world. That is why it is no longer considered grammatically incorrect to say "He does not resist you" rather than "He doth not resist you." Nor do we correct someone when they refer to a ship as "it" rather than "she" because that aspect of grammatical gender in English has almost disappeared, save in literary and perhaps one or two minor specialty registers. Nor do we correct someone when "I have become rich" instead of "I am become rich." And so on and so on. Every decade people are complaining about how language is deteriorating but they fail to realise that there is no such thing, unless we are all to speak Proto-Indo-European, which no one knows anymore anyway.
When English was genered 'ship' (scip) was a neutral noun. I'm not aware it has ever been a feminine noun.
References to ships as 'she' are, at least in English, purely traditional. And they were never exclusively referred to as 'she', it was a convention among seamen who developed a kind of relationship with their vessels (where the rest of the population would say 'it') and became more widely adopted over time.
How many people talk about their cars as 'the old girl' or ask their mates 'how's she running?' but still refer to a generic car as 'it'. That's the exact same principle, but I don't think it points to a change in the grammar rules for the noun 'car'. And in my experience most women drivers refer to their cars as 'he' - perhaps if there had been more female sailors around in history we might never have thought of ships as being female in the first place.
It is grammatically incorrect, regardless of whether it is a common colloquialism. Yes, rules are fluid, but the rules haven't changed to encompass this particular usage. The same rule applies as always: split the subjects and see if the sentence still makes sense. "She walked in the night," is fine. "Me walked in the night," is not.
And I don't understand why you're conflating this with ships being called "she". That's not a grammatical gender in English (which is not a gendered language in the same way Romance languages are); it's a naval tradition.
As I said, it depends on the register. And you haven't taken this into account, making a black and white distinction between colloquial and formal or "correct." Who decides the rules? The rules should be decided by usage and if were and English teacher, as I'm sure other English teachers who have any sense in regard to the nature of language would agree, I would not "correct" students for something that is commonly and increasingly widely accepted.
Unfortunately neither does your example of splitting subjects, a rule that apparently "applies as always," take into account the complexity of language, which forms its own rules in accordance with usage.
The reason I bring up ships being referred to as "she," as well as other examples that you have not addressed, is that English was once gendered and remnants of this can be seen in, for example, ship pronouns, as well as pronouns used for animals and, not so common now, neutral or masculine pronouns to refer to a children, depending on the register.
here's an academic source: lecture 19 - the fallacy of blackboard grammar, john mcwhoter ph.d. he's a professor. he professes. http://www.thegreatcourses.com/courses/story-of-human-language.html
How 'bout two hundred and fifty years? Here is Jason Priestley (1772) quoting "some of our best writeres" saying such "abominations" as "It is me." https://books.google.com/books?id=mwUUAAAAQAAJ&q=me#v=snippet&q=me&f=false
Yeah, that's an entirely different sentence, where the reason that "me" is technically incorrect has nothing to do with it being the subject of the clause but rather has to do with the verb "to be" acting as a linking verb. Since it's referring to a state of being, the preferred phrasing is, "It is I," even though it's perfectly normal to hear people use the incorrect form.
But this sentence is an example of a much less ambiguous rule, which may be broken in colloquial speech to some extent. The rule, however, is pretty solid, and you haven't even demonstrated that you understand which rule applies here, much less that any grammarians think that it has changed.
I understand that you were deeply wounded by an English teacher at some point in time, but I just do not understand your insistence on crusading for adding incorrect English sentences to a language learning site. It's like you deliberately want to confuse non-native speakers in order to justify your not liking the subject.
I agree. It is perhaps "grammatically incorrect", but people speak this way. Moreover, this is about acquiring German, not about rendering one's English more correct; I don't think anyone who translated the sentence to "You and me strolled in the night" has thought that in the original German sentence it was meant that anything has acted upon the first person, so to speak.
No. This is a subject pronoun here for "I". Another way of looking at it is when you remove the other subject and it still makes sense then it's correct.
However, be aware of the shortened versions of phrases of e.g. "He eats more vegetables than I do" that becomes "He eats more vegetables than I". I used this example to show why it is important to use "I" instead of "me" because it would otherwise mean that he actually eats me...
Whenever there are two subjects like 'You' and 'Me/I', split up the sentence. You and I went for a walk, is the correct choice, and not You and me went for a walk.
By splitting the sentence into two, this becomes clear. I went for a walk, not me went for a walk.
Sorry if it's not clear :/
I think this is a case of hypercorrectness. "You and I" is the subject. "You and me" is the object. So if you're confused about which one to use, just take the "you and" out. "I walk in the night" - sounds good. While "Me walk in the night" - sounds ridiculous!
I hope I cleared your doubt! :))
So, this is another dative/accusative issue with "nacht." Nacht is feminine, so the article would be either "die" (if accusative), or "der" (if dative). In this case the confusing "in" is used which means if the questions is "wohin" (where to) then the accusative is used, but if the question is "wo" (where) the dative is used. Duolingo is saying the dative. I suppose to a poet might say "into the night" in which case the accusative would be used. This is a confusing topic, can someone please confirm my analysis?
You are right! It would be rare and only if I would never associate myself with them in "we". It would be far more common to say "We", but perhaps "they and I" were both walking in the night, but not together. By not using "we", I am telling you that I do not consider "they" to be a part of my group. "She and I" can be used to point a particular person out and I might continue with "we" later. If you were talking to someone, I suppose you could point at them also and say "They and I". If you are not pointing them out, then you are singling yourself out of the group.
By the way, I just tried it and "They and I walked in the night." was accepted as correct by Duolingo.
To everyone who's confused about whether to use "you and me" or "you and I", here's a tip. I think this is a case of hypercorrectness. Just take the "you and" out.
"I walked in the night" - sounds good.
"Me walked in the night" - sounds ridiculous!
I hope I cleared your doubt! :))
No. 'Went for a walk' isn't the same as 'were walking' or 'walked'. The former suggests there is no other reason to walk other than 'to walk', the latter could just mean you are walking home from the shops. I'm not sure if it is right, but "Sie und ich gingen in der Nacht spazieren" is the translation of your statement.