"My son likes the crib."
Translation:A mi hijo le gusta la cuna.
"A mi hijo" is a prepositional phrase. Literally, the sentence is "the crib is pleasing to my son," and the "a" is the preposition "to"
I disagree. This is a personal "a". Putting the words in normal order you'll get: La cuna le gusta a mi hijo
So here we would not want to "double up" on the use of the prepostion "a(to)", is what I understand.
This is really confusing to me but I think I'm starting to get it. If you said, "Le gusta la cuna," is that a grammatically correct sentence then, but just unclear at who it's referring to? So the other part is another clause you add on for clarity?
You're making good progress - look, I'll admit it, I'm terrible at this, but I'm starting to get it too. You just need lots and lots of practice and you'll start to understand. :)
That means he wants the crib. Querer is only used in the sense of liking or loving when it is directed at a person.
Why, exactly, is "La cuna gusta a mi hijo" an incorrect sentence? It translates as "The crib pleases my son" as it is, so why do we need the "le" here?
We don't have an equivalent in English which is why non native spanish speakers struggle (for awhile) with this concept. Perhaps it would help if I told you "a mi hijo" is what is optional in Spanish and that it is only added to clarify who is pleased. Le is not optional so think of the sentence like this "la cuna le gusta" and unless we know who le is then we add a ella, a usted, or whatever. In this case we are dealing with an indirect object pronoun. Did you notice the tips in the "object pronouns" module at the top of the screen once you start a lesson. It is quite concise and helpful. I don't know if I have given you the exact explanation you were seeking but I hope it helps.
It has been explained how 'a mi hijo' clarifies 'le gusta la cuna'.
However how fluid is the sentence structure? So, does the 'a mi hijo' have to be in the front; or is it sound as well to say le gusta la cuna a mi hijo; or la cuna le gusta a mi hijo?
Both sound a bit odd to my foreign ear, but then again - so does the correct sentence :-)
So why can I say "mis padres gustan de la cerveza", but I can't say "mi hijo gusta de la cuna"? Someone explain plz..
Why is "le" necessary can't I just say "Mi hijo gusta la cuna" doesn't it still mean the same thing?
Think of "gustar" as the English verb "to please", because that's how you express "like" in Spanish. So "A mi hijo le gusta la cuna" is literally equivalent to "The crib pleases my son." Obviously, we don't speak like that in conversational English, but it's helpful to see how the verb "gustar" works. Here's another example: "My daughter loves basketball." = "A mi hija le encanta el baloncesto."
I'm getting so mixed up on direct and indirect objects. I keep using se instead of le or whatever. So confusing. Can anyone refer me to a really good, clear explanation of it all?
I'm also not sure why gusta requires an indirect object rather than a direct object. I heard it defined as "It pleases (him/her/etc.)" but that would need a direct object, wouldn't it? So maybe that translation isn't exactly accurate either? I WILL get this! I WILL! :)