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  5. "Sie hat keine Verwandten."

"Sie hat keine Verwandten."

Translation:She does not have any relatives.

June 29, 2017



Well that's depressing


Why, sometimes it's a real blessing


why a "n" at Verwandten


Verwandter inflects like an adjective.

After keine, you have mixed inflection (which is the same as strong inflection in the plural), so the adjective takes the weak ending -en.


Typically lucid explanation. Thank you.


still didn't get :'(


Any time you have a determiner before a plural (the noun being described) adjective: add an -en.


I didn't get it yet either. It's German it will sink in after awhile. We have to get used to it.


I am doing the same. Write it fown and carry on.


'She has no relatives' Surely is correct too?


Yes, that is correct (and accepted).


where does the breakdown of this word come from? ver+wand


It's unanalysable in modern German, but is ultimately related to wenden "turn".

Apparently, verwenden used to have a meaning something like "turn to each other", so people who were verwandt were turned towards each other helpfully, and this meaning later narrowed down to "related".

Now, only the past participle verwandt is used as an adjective; used as a noun, the adjective means "a relative".


We should all have some family like this or even some friends. In English the noun is relative and the verb is relate. When we say relate it means people that we understand or understand us no matter what we do or how crazy it is. So it has somewhat of a different meaning. Just my 2 cents and if anyone is interested. Relate doesn't mean we depend on them or they depend on us. Just an interesting idea.


So there are no parents, grandparents, aunties, uncles, brothers, sisters, cousins or great grandparents? Why


I suppose because this is "Family 2", you'll find the ones you named in the first lesson.


When I hover over Verwandten, it says that the word is of feminine gender. However, it can be masculine as well, with the singular form Verwandter, right?


Yes and no.

Verwandter inflects like an adjective, so the ending depends on whether there's an article in front of it and if so, what kind.

So you have, for example, der Verwandte but ein Verwandter when speaking about the/a male relative, and die Verwandte, eine Verwandte when speaking about the/a female relative.

In the plural, there is no difference: die Verwandten, keine Verwandten would be for male, female, or a mixed group.


You say the plural is always "Verwandten"; so why in the same section did I just encounter' "meine Tanten und Neffen sind Verwandte"? I am still not clear about this word.


die Verwandten when the definite article die is in front of it.

Verwandte when there is no article or other determiner (diese, meine, alle, …) in front of it.

It inflects like an adjective so the endings can follow strong, weak, or mixed inflection depending on what comes before it.


I wonder if you can clarify this for me. You say it inflects like an adjective, which I understand. What I don't understand is how that leads to an -n ending in third person plural accusative. Wouldn't you write: Ich habe die grüne Bücher? Or am I completely wrong and it's "die grünen Bücher"?


It is die grünen Bücher.


What about "she has no kin"?


Kin is "mountain" English, mostly only used by those who live in a remote and somewhat isolated region (Appalachia) of the US. However, pretty much everyone would understand that it means relatives, so I wouldn't count it as wrong but it is not common.


Well, I am not really that acquainted with the AM English, much less with Appalachian or so! :) I have learned the word from reading some rather dated British literature. "Yet I thank you." :)


Why the below translation is wrong ? She has no ralatives ?


Because "relatives" has an "e" in the first syllable, not an "a".


"she does not have family members" is not accepted, why?


Family members would probably be another translation in German Famiglie members? Sorry I don't know how to translate this into German yet. I got this word from google translate Familienmitglieder Just saying hope this helps.


Many societies understand family through ideas of living together, the sharing of food, etc. and have family members that are not relatives.

From: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Family


Why isn't "she hasn't got any relatives" accepted?


Just a missing alternative -- added now.


Thank you very much!


I guess it's better to have some crazy screwed up relatives that none. Or maybe some good ones and bad ones.


Why is not correct: She has no any relatives?


Because that is not correct English.


Why is my answer: She hasn't any relatives Accepted?


UK English forms have to be reported as also correct, sentence by sentence. This course is taught from American English.


i'm curious as to why "she has no relatives" wasn't accepted?

edit: this was accepted later on, so it must have been user error.


i'm curious as to why "she has no relatives" wasn't accepted?

So am I, since "she has no relatives" is one of the accepted answers.

Do you have a screenshot that can help us get to the bottom of this mystery?


Unfortunately I do not. I was fairly certain that I double checked for typos. However when i answered the same question later, it was accepted, so it must have been user error. I probably should have edited the original comment. I will do that now. sorry for the confusion and thanks for the fast reply!


I don't know what use these repeat after sentences are, since sometimes it cuts me off before I finish speaking and says it is good. Other times it says incorrect when I say it perfectly and vice a versa it says good when I completely mangle the sentence. I've even said it in English and got a correct response.


I finally gave up and switched off my microphone.


Why not just, "she has no relatives"?


Why not just, "she has no relatives"?

That's another possible (and accepted) translation.


Sie hat keine Verwandten, correct translation shows "She does not have any Relatives." Question: where the word "any" came from?

"She does not have Relatives" (without "any") is incorrect? Why/How?


Question: where the word "any" came from?

It's a kind of plural indefinite article in English -- keine can be "not any" in the plural much like how it can be "not a" in the singular.

"She does not have Relatives" (without "any") is incorrect?

No; that's another accepted translation.


No gender article determiner= no -n!


What is the point of your comment?

Were you trying to answer someone else's question?

Were you trying to say that Duo's sentence is wrong? (It has the determiner keine which ends in -e for plural accusative, which is why Verwandten takes mixed inflection, with -en for plural accusative.)


Kein is an “ein” word, just like possessive pronouns!


Kein is an “ein” word, just like possessive pronouns!

I think you mean like possessive determiners.

kein and ein are indefinite articles and thus determiners, just like possessive determiners such as mein and ihr.

"Possessive pronouns" is a term that, I think, is best reserved for words that stand instead of a noun (= a pro-noun) rather than in front of one.

The corresponding pronouns inflect differently: keiner, einer, meiner, ihrer etc. for masculine. Keiner ist teurer als meiner! "None of them is more expensive than mine!"


What are inflections anyway?


What are inflections anyway?

When a word changes its shape for grammatical reasons -- adds an ending, changes the internal vowel, whatever.


Oh, please give me some examples besides Verwandte vs. Verwandten.


I just finished an example in which it was explicitly stated that the word for relatives is "Verwandte" - it was hard to miss because I chose "Verwandten" in that case and was told that I'm wrong. Need I point out that this contradiction is counter-productive to my understanding?


The word Verwandte inflects like an adjective.

This means that the endings are sensitive to the presence or absence of an article before it.

For example, ein Verwandter, der Verwandte just like ein großer Mann, der große Mann (-er in mixed inflection after ein, -e in weak inflection after der).

Similarly, “relatives” is Verwandte (strong inflection without preceding determiner) but “the relatives” is die Verwandten (weak inflection after definite article) and “no relatives” is keine Verwandten (mixed inflection after indefinite article) — the same endings you would see in große Männer; die großen Männer; keine großen Männer.


why is a noun acting like an adjective? is there a list of nouns that behave like adjectives that i should be memorizing, or is there a rule that helps me spot those instances?


why is a noun acting like an adjective?

Because it's derived from one -- verwandt means "related", so ein Verwandter is literally "a related one". It's just an adjective turned into a noun by putting an article before it, but still inflects like an adjective.

English usually needs a dummy noun "one" in that sort of situation ("a blue one, the big one") but German can just the adjective on its own.

is there a list of nouns that behave like adjectives that i should be memorizing

Not really. Canoo.net has 823 entries for "nouns that behave like adjectives" but you won't ever need most of those.

It's probably best to memorise the dozen or so most common ones as you come across them, such as ein Verwandter, ein Erwachsener (and later in this course, ein Außerirdischer "an alien [from another planet]").


Unlike English, noun endings change in German based on gender, number and case. Especially for nouns used to describe another noun. Then like adjectives, it even matters if there is a definite article (weak inflection), an indefinite article or possessive pronoun (mixed inflection), or no article strong inflection).


Kein is the negative form of the indefinite article and so that makes it mixed inflection for which no matter which case the plural noun used as an adjective ends in -en. The mixed inflection singular masculine in Accusative case also ends in -en, but you can tell from the ending on “keine” that this is the plural form.



She does not has I guess more correct rather than have!


No “she has”, but “she does have”, when the verb “does” is conjugated then the next verb is a bare infinitive (to have - to). “I have” (have is conjugation for present tense for all pronouns except he she or it), becomes “I do have” (“do” is conjugation for all pronouns except he, she or it and “have” here is the bare infinitive.)

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