"Nimevipika viazi vitamu"

Translation: I have cooked the sweet potatoes

[LesOConnel]

how does one know whether the phrase "viazi vitamu" refers to the sweet potatoes or just delicious ordinary potatoes?

[Dying_Star]

Kirehani is sweet potatoes. :)

[LesOConnel]

Thanks

[pablopublico]

Is there a difference between "nimevipika viazi" and "nimepika viazi"? Are both correct? Does the meaning change? Asante!

[giraffe__]

it means about the same in your example, "nimevipika" is just being slightly more descriptive

[Joanne394981]

This was my question too. Unfortunately no-one has answered it yet.

[BwanaSimba]

Ordinary potatoes in E.A. are sweet potatoes = "viazi". European potatoes are "viazi vya kizungu". So I would translate "viazi vitamu" as delicious sweet potatoes. There are also other varieties of potatoes of which "kirehani" is one.

[Tamara695755]

Where I live, "Irish potatoes" are viazi viringo, and sweet potatoes are viazi vitamu

[mistergrav]

Side comment here: I thought sweet potatoes were the same things as yams... so via vikuu... Are they different in Africa? Is my local grocer just being lazy?!?!

[Yung_Biden]

If I remember correctly yams in Africa are different than in America... but in America yams and sweet potatoes are different... so your grocer lied.

[niels862850]

should it not be translated: I have cooked them sweet potatoes-meaning I have cooked sweet potatoes for them? I have cooked the sweet potatoes could be translated:nimepika viazi vitamu- or am I wrong?

[giraffe__]

no, because "vi" infix refers to objects in the ki-vi plural noun class and not people

[Konrad-Michal]

How to use both object infixes then: I have cooked them sweet potatoes? Or I have sent it to my friend? Would Nimeimtumia rafiki yangu be correct?