"A man having a deep voice spoke."

Translation:Un homme ayant une voix profonde a parlé.

1 year ago

29 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/hermesetathena
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I think that most part of the French say "un homme à la voix grave" instead of "un homme ayant une voix grave" or "un homme ayant une voix profonde" I have never heard this last phrase even if it is (I think) correct.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CJ.Dennis
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Duo is teaching "having"="ayant". I think your phrase would better translate to "a deep voiced man", or "a man with a deep voice" rather than "a man having a deep voice".

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DavidaRich

would't this be "a man with a serious voice..."? But even is it can indicate a serious voice, the phrase doesn't convey that he spoke because his voice was deep ("having a deep voice").

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/katja895418

Bad English!

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Manuccho
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En français on dirait tout simplement "un homme à la voix profonde a parlé" mais ce n'est pas accepté non plus....

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Vms1985
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there must be another way of learning to use 'ayant'; the English sentence is embarrassingly bad.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Yucca-Moh
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un homme qui a une voix profonde a parlé marked wrong? would someone explain why?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ALLYR0

I have been using une voix grosse for weeks and has been marked correct. Why not now?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CJ.Dennis
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I just worked it out! You may say "une grosse voix" (a deep voice), but not "une voix grosse" (a fat voice)!

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Chiu1551
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But using "une profonde voix" worked well. So both "une profonde voix" & "une voix profonde" are accepted?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CJ.Dennis
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It seems to be a valid translation, so if it's not accepted next time, report it.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LorenTracy
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Even if "grosse" was correct, the correct expression would be "une grosse voix" and it actually mean a loud or imposing voice rather than deep.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/1081748598

A deep voice is usually translated "une voix grave" which is the same as "une voix profonde".

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Gita-ji
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Anyone else finding that the dictation exercise is totally silent, yet it requires this answer? I eventually just pasted it into the box, then I could continue.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/koursk
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Un homme ayant une voix profonde parla

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/alain337609
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Parfaitement correct et refusé

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/koursk
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Parla passé simple de parler

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MatthewROY77877

Interesting, my correction says "voix forte," which definitely does not mean "deep voice." Voix profonde as I see in this discussion works.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/spjh1966
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I get the point of the exercise. My first submission was "un homme d'une voix profonde a parlé". Would that be acceptable and understood in everyday French?

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DavidaRich

Oops - meant to say even if it can convey the idea of a deep voice, rather than a serious one.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/patfinegan
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Why is "Un homme ayant une voix grave a parlait" incorrect? I.e. what it is about the English sentence that rules out the imperfect form of parler?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hermesetathena
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"Un homme ayant une voix grave à parlé" not "a parlait". "A man spoke" = "un homme parlait"; "a man has spoken" = "un homme a parlé". "a parlait" does not exist in French.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/patfinegan
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Sorry, I mistyped what I submitted. DL rejected "Un homme ayant une voix grave parlait." I did not submit "a parlait" in the actual timed practice. Honest. I was curious what nuance rendered the imperfect form of parler incorrect or inferior in this context to the perfect form. For example, does the imperfect form translate better to "the man was speaking" as opposed to "the man spoke" and, if so, do these two usages connote more distinctive meanings among French speakers than they do in English?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/to-mor
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Yes. Why not " parlait"?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Fee968394
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I'm wondering the same thing.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LorenTracy
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French person here: "parlait" would indeed be translated from "was speaking", which indicate a habit or a description of a "long action"

"Spoke" indicated a ponctual or finished action and therefore translated by "a parlé" or "parla". But duolingo refused parla...

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dufajjulie

Why does DL sometimes give the answers with the question? The answer was already there without my having to choose it.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PeaceJoyPancakes

It could be a problem with the spacetime continuum.

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/laurence488372
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Yes indead Un homme à la voix profonde parla Should be admitted too Dont be so restrictive it makes the lesson a little heavy...

1 month ago
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