"La semana pasada vi a la tía de mi esposo."
Translation:Last week I saw my husband's aunt.
"Last week i saw the aunt of my husband" is not correct? Isn't that also the same? It's the literal translation as well
Up until the recent expansion of the tests, possessives seemed much more rare, if not missing. Now the dreaded Apostrophe S seems required. Reported.
Ver takes an indirect object here. The construction is "ver a alguien".
So, "La semana pasada vi a la tía de mi esposo" is a complete sentence.
What I think you might be confusing this with is previous sentences you've seen like "La semana pasada le vi a ella." The difference in this sentence is that the indirect object is a pronoun. The sentence starts off as "La semana pasada le vi", but this is ambiguous. It could mean "Last week I saw him/her/you (formal)". This is when you add the clarification to the end: 'a ella' 'a él' or 'a usted'.
Wait, does this mean we can have a sentence with an indirect object, but no direct object? Because you could whittle this down to "vi a mi tia".
Exactly! The same goes in English. "I go to the cinema" has an indirect object but no direct object.
Arghh, but of course, they're just dative and accusative. Sad, I understand this in German, but not my native English....
Actually, in English it IS necessary to have a direct object with an indirect object. In your example above, "cinema" is an object of a preposition, not an indirect object. For some reason the two are different parts of speech in english.
I'm sorry Amy, but I think you've got this backward. (Since you have probably gotten this straightened out after four years, I'll still explain for the benefit of other users coming along.)
Ver uses the direct object, not the indirect. What is being seen = the aunt = direct object. That's why no DO pronoun la is used here. (In answer to MarkofSky's question.) Direct object pronouns are not used when the direct object noun is included in the sentence.
Without the noun, I saw her = La vi. Or La vi a ella, if the direct object pronoun la could be mistaken for it or you formal.
An indirect object receives the direct object (stated or implied). Here's the aunt as an indirect object: I sent my aunt a letter. Le envié a mi tía una carta. The stated DO is the letter, and the aunt is the IO, the receiver. Even though the aunt is used in the sentence, since she's the indirect object we need an indirect object pronoun (le) before the verb (envié).
Hope this helps to clear it up.
Aren't they optional? There's no ambiguity here, so it isn't needed.
[I was confused; See the conversation above with amyosauras instead. Scoring down my own post...!]
I thought, from recent lessons, that we would have to say "La semana pasada la vi" and the "a la tía de mi esposa" was the optional part. I, too would appreciate input from someone on this.
Seriously! Last question was dia and this question was tia, and por supuesto i got each wrong because I swear it sounded like the other. Grrrr!
This is probably already known to everyone but you can click on the above sentence and it will show the declination of the chosen word for you. Though I'm not sure who is actually reading this in 2018 except for me.
Personally I have a hard time understanding when several short words are in a sentence consecutively.
So many small words... "Vi a la tía de mi" just blends together to sound like "vialatiademi" Haha. Just gotta get used to the quick speed at which Spanish is spoken