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  5. "No escribas con bolígrafos d…

"No escribas con bolígrafos distintos."

Translation:Do not write with different pens.

March 8, 2013



As some of you seem to struggle with that matter (just as I used to do before I was learned what I'm going to tell you ) let me try to explain what my teacher teach me about that . You just have to remember that when the imperative is in the negative form you use the conjugation of the negative of the subjunctive to translate it . I found it very clear and simple and i have never forgotten it since then


"when the imperative is in the negative form you use the conjugation of the negative of the subjunctive to translate it"

I don't understand?


When you see a sentence that has imperative in the negative form in it , and you want to translate it into spanish, you just have to use the spanish subjunctive tense to do it. Without of course forgetting to put that in the negative form . Is that a better explanation, If not I'm truly sorry but I'm not an English native speaker , I'm a French one . And I take that course , because the Spanish course for French people isn't available yet =S


What triggers the subjunctive in this sentence?


A negative command is the same word as the present tense subjunctive for "tu"


Hola ajabrams: No, sorry, not right. A negative command "tú" takes the OPPOSITE ending of the present indicative. That is why in this sentence the verb command ends in "as". The present indicative ends in "es". [reference 501 Spanish Verbs, Barron's Books].


They said it is the same as present tense subjunctive, not indicative


It is command, and the imperative is triggered.


Not exactly right. The subjunctive is specifically triggered because it is a negative tu command. If it was affrimative such as, "Write with different pens," then it would use escribe, not escribas.


Hola rspreng and Kainui: Please see post below. It is not subjunctive. It is imperative. See full explanation below (in reply to Hla Ireeves). Gracias.


Hla Ireeves: It is not subjunctive. It is the imperative (command) form, negative, in the "tú" person. Yes, it looks like subjunctive, but it really is a verb form unto itself, known as "command" or "imperative" or "imperativo". Command: Write! = "¡Escribe!"......Command: Do not write = "¡No escribas!" .............Command: You (formal) write! = ¡Escriba Usted! ..........Command: You (formal) Do not write! = "¡No escriba Usted! ...........Command: You (plural) Do not write! = "¡No escriban Ustedes!. [reference, 501 Spanish Verbs, Barron's Books]. CHAU


Thanks. This is very helpful. However, I suspect that the reason people think they're the same form is that they historically ARE the same form. I'm a Latin teacher and one way of forming negative commands in Latin is nōn (Spanish no) + Subjunctive.


Is it possible that this could also translate to "You do not write with different pens" due to the verb being "escribas"?


wouldn't it then be "escribes"?


Yes, I believe you're right. Thanks for the correction.


Weird sentence...


I imagine this is someone using a different color pen to write each letter, and a parent or teacher says, don't use different pens to write.


What do you guys think about "Don't you write with different pens" here? Am I using it right?


No, in english the personal pronoun is not included in imperative statements.


¿No escribes con bolígrafos distintos?


If we translate as literally as possible why it marks it wrong to say "...with distinct pens."


Is "various" instead of "different" not acceptable?


I understand the complex negative imperative command, but I do not understand why boligrafos distintos is not translated as distinct pens. I would think boligrafos diferentes would translate as different pens. (Yee Gads! I just noticed I have been deducted one level in Spanish! It took weeks to get to Level 13 and now I have been demoted.)


why wouldn't you just say differentes. why.


'differentes' --> diferentes

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