"Un homme ayant une voix profonde a parlé."

Translation:A man having a deep voice spoke.

July 24, 2017

This discussion is locked.


Is it just me, or is "A man having a deep voice spoke" just not good English? I'd say "A man with a deep voice spoke". The word "having" to me suggests a current experience, such as "a man having a crisis spoke" or "a man having a good time spoke". I am assuming that the man was not just having a deep voice phase at the time he was speaking.

This is coming from a native English speaker from England, so please let me know if you're from America or Australia and this sounds perfectly normal to you!


I'm American: I don't think it is technically incorrect , but decidedly awkward.

I would say "A man with a deep voice spoke", as well. I think this usage of having has grown antiquated and unnatural.


I agree, it sounds very unnatural. I'm also English though, so we share the same cultural bias.


I'm American, and this seems wrong to me


I'm an American also, having lived all over the US with all its different accents. (Do you like how I snuck in the gerund there?) It's, as T.SpencerM says, awkward. But I would also add, "A man who had a deep voice spoke," as an acceptable re-phrasing.


From Australia. Definitely sounds awkward to use "having." Commas would also make it better - "A man, having a deep voice, can project further..." etc


I'm Canadian and it sounds super awkward!


It also struck me as very weird. I'm not a native speaker though but my boyfriend is and we speak English at home.


Does 'talk' not work in this context?


I agree. I wrote everything else correctly, except I used "talked" instead of "spoke" and got it marked wrong. Ex: A man having a deep voice talked.

So why aren't both "to talk" and "to speak" correct?


I used "talked" and was marked wrong as well.

I've been thinking about why and maybe, it is because the sentence doesn't mention anyone the man was talking to. The difference between "A man having a deep voice talked to my sister" and "A man having a deep voice spoke (at the conference)".

Just a thought. This one still has me slightly befuddled.


You are correct Ruggles. Speak tends to be used for one-sided communications (e.g. she spoke to her employees), whereas talk implies a conversation or discussion between two or more people (e.g. everyone was talking when he walked into the room). Speak is a little more formal than talk, and is often used in polite requests. It's peculiar, but I would never say talked here, as I also wouldn't say "having a deep voice!" In general, I don't imagine saying 'talked' in the simple past, but rather in a progressive form, such as "was talking."


There was no audio Jan 2018, I reported a problem, but there is no "missing audio" option


No audio Feb 18, 2018. Reported AGAIN


Reported again March 2018 - no audio plays at all.


Still no audio- April 2018


No native English speaker would say, "a man having a deep voice spoke."


why "A parlé" and not "à parler" ?


He spoke, so it is passé composé


In English when qualifying a voice "deep" = "low", unless further qualified.


could anyone please explain " a parle" as "spoke" here? i got confused!


I think has spoken = spoke


It is the Compound Past tense, i.e., Passé composé. The accent is important: il a parlé = he spoke (or) he has spoken.


I suggest "a man with a deep voice spoke".

"A man having a deep voice" doesn't sound particularly natural in English.


What is wrong with "A man with a deep voice was talking"?

[deactivated user]

    If I'm not mistaken, was talking falls into passé imparfait and would be translated as "un homme [...] Parlais. Great question! There is a lot to the imperfect past, let us know if you need more


    I understand that this translation uses slightly different grammatical components, but I thought it would sound better than the proposed version and still convey the same idea.

    [deactivated user]

      On the contrary, the imperfect past has additional information that is lost when we use the simple past or past habitual (used to).
      If we wanted to say the man got cut off at the same time as he was speaking we would say.
      A man was speaking when I suddenly interrupted.
      This is the past imperfect, to point out the information lost I'll say it in the past simple.
      A man spoke when I suddenly interrupted.
      This sentence says that the spoke after I interrupted or perhaps as soon as I did it suddenly. Please note this is the tense I struggled with most in French and this is only one way it adds mood and tense information.


      Dec 2017 it worked... Buy I said very low not "deep"


      why is the passé composé used here?

      • 1945

      There is audio (16.07.2018). But why it pauses after un homme ayant, which makes difficult to understand the whole sentence.


      Was "A man spoke with a deep voice" be acceptable?

      [deactivated user]

        this lesson is in gerund and there is no conjunction in the french sample


        Yeah, I'm with Hannah. To me this sentence should be, " A man with a deep voice had spoken" or " A man that had a deep voice had spoken" or " A man with a deep voice spoke" or " A man that had a deep voice spoke ".


        Why is there no "en" before "ayant" here? As in "Un homme en ayant une voix...".

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