"I am going to tell you everything."
Translation:Te lo voy a contar todo.
"los" is the direct object pronoun for "todo" and "se" (actually 'le') is the indirect object pronoun for "ustedes." "le" becomes "se" before "los" The basic sentence is "Se los voy a contar" and the "a ustedes" and the "todo" clarify the meanings of the adjectives.
How come "los" is in the plural here? Shouldn't it be "lo", since todo is singular?
I got it wrong when I put lo, but it looks like they updated it really recently. It's works now.
Nope still maintains that los is correct, even though it doesn't agree with todo.
The use of los/las instead of their singular forms after "se" apparently is a widespread issue, maybe even error. RAE calls it something like improper transfer of the plural clitic form. At the heart of it is that the indirect object clitic becomes se even if it stands for les. And this lost plural shifts to the direct object clitic. RAE seems to frown on this: http://goo.gl/ra29oy
No, because "te lo voy a contar todo" is correct.
(Also, as I noted in my comment below -- "everything" is singular in English, just as "todo" is singular in Spanish.)
It looks like on 26 July 2014 we still lack the explanation for how "los", instead of the expected "lo", doubles the "todo"in the translation Duo believes to be correct.
FWIW, in the reverse tree version of this sentence discussion, one of the highest rated comments is the following by CarlosGuis:
"A ustedes se los voy a contar todo creo que no está correcto, debería ser A ustedes se lo voy a contar todo, al menos en España no suena bien."
So that native speaker also appears not to be on board with "A ustedes se los voy a contar todo" because of the "los".
Exactamente. So it should be les for ustedes followed by lo for todo. So it becomes l les lo . Does that make any sense
"se" is referring to "ustedes" and "los" is referring to "todo" ( I don't know why "los" is used, I think it should be "lo" but there is some explanation above which I'm not sure I understand). I don't think you use le/les ( usted/ustedes) with lo ( it/todo), I think le/les changes to "se" when this is the case (lo/la/los/las are used) and I think it is just because it is easier to pronounce/say "se lo, se los/etc.", or sounds odd to have something like "le lo..." verbalized.
It's one of those niggling grammar nuances, in that "se" is used for both singular (cómo se llama usted) and plural (cómo se llaman ustedes).
So to clarify, 'le' or 'les' will become 'se' when followed by a DO pronoun? Follow up question: is there such a thing as "ses"?
just one question: A ustedes se voy a contar todo.
why do we need los? it doesn't mean anything. you don't need 'yo' in "yo estudio". same thing.
los is an object pronoun and object pronouns are often used redundantly. yo is a subject pronoun and is not needed because it is implicit in estudio. Object pronouns follow different rules.
redundant. exactly. that's what i was thinking. the only problem is when you don't use subject pronouns, your answer is marked incorrect.
if DL accepted the answer without los, and recommend us to use los for better spanish, and gave us a candy, there would not be 100 question in here.
When the indirect object "le" is immediately followed by a direct object (lo/la/los/las), it automatically changes to "se". So you would never say "Le lo voy a contar todo," but instead "Se lo voy a contar todo."
The most natural way of saying this for a Spaniard would be "Voy a decirte todo."? I'm unsure but it seems more natural than "Te lo voy a contar todo". No se!
I think that "voy a decirte todo" is more natural for an English speaker speaking Spanish. "Te lo voy a decir todo" would be the construct more natural to a Spanish speaker.
Funny, that's exactly what I thought too. This (the correct answer) seems to be a very convoluted way of saying it. But what do I know, I'm only learning it.
With indirect object pronouns, what I've written is standard grammar. BUT, in the case of preposition + infinitive with the reflexive object pronoun, the reflexive object pronoun must be tacked onto the infinitive.
Examples: (Remember, these are for reflexive pronouns only)
Yo leo antes de acostarme. Cenamos después de lavarnos las manos. Después de quitarse las botas, él entra en la casa.
I don't understand how the contar version translates to I'm going to tell you everything. Isn't contar to count? I got te Lo voy decir todo, or your version even on Spanish translation sites I'm going to tell it to you all. Or count all
For anyone confused by why it is 'se los':
"If le or les are immediately followed by an object pronoun beginning with l, i.e. by lo, la, los or las, the le or les must be replaced by se."
"There is a widespread tendency in spontaneous Latin-American speech to show that se stands for les by pluralizing the direct object pronoun, i.e. se los dije, for se lo dije a ellos/ellas." ... "It is vehemently rejected in Spain."
Source: John Butt & Carmen Benjamin, "A New Reference Grammar of Modern Spanish"
Stole my heart. I didn't select the version with lots as the DO because it shouldn't be. But alas DL thinks it is and marked me wrong. I knew i should have selected it, but didn't because i knew it wasn't correct. Sadness.
why can't i say 'voy a decirte todos? what's the difference between todo and todos?
That's a good question. In this case, the singular noun "everything" is used in the English, which is translated to the Spanish singular noun "todo." The plural in Spanish doesn't match the singular in English, therefore "todos" doesn't work. Also, it is far more common to say "todo" when expressing the general concept of "everything" in Spanish.
One of the given solutinons is "voy a decirte todo". What means "decirte" - infinitive is "decir" and why "voy a te decir todo" is wrong? Is "te decir" transformed into "decir-te"? If yes, in which case?
Hi diesch! Ok, so "decirte" is "decir" + "te," as you've suggested. The alternative is, as yoonna mentioned, "te lo voy a decir todo." The sentence "voy a te decir todo" is wrong, because the indirect object pronoun "te" is never placed between verbs, but either before "(a ti) te lo voy a decir todo," or attached to the end of the infinitive "(voy a decirte todo (a ti)." (Just a minor note: the "a ti" is implied by "te," and is usually omitted in speech).
If that wasn't clear, let me know and I'll do my best to explain it better!
Each flag represents a language: Spanish, German, French, Italian and Portuguese. The numbers represent the level I've achieved in each language. There's so much more to learn! :)
My question is why the lo is needed in one but not the other.
--te lo voy a decir todo
--voy a decirte todo
It's pretty hard for me to get all that, but I think you're saying that both should have a lo, correct?
i think it should be either 'te voy a decir todo' or 'voy a decirte todo' indirect object which is 'te' here should come after the infinitive verb..
I don't understand why the "lo" is necessary here, though I get that it is necessary. How do I know when that direct object pronoun is needed?
Te voy a contar todo was accepted... I didn't know contar could meant tell. I thought it meant count.
Perhaps it would help to think of contar as either count or recount (=tell a story).
i answered it correctly but sorry, this is really illogical. spanish really doesn't make sense of pronouns and i assume spanish children just memorize what their parents say about the subject. languages don't have to make sense all the time, they're languages, not science. nobody can explain why there are so much "get" in english. and this is one of those illogical situations. just memorize the pattern and continue.
I'm not sure I follow. Did you mean "voy a te contar" vs "voy a contarte?" The first one doesn't make sense, since it's not grammatically correct Spanish. That's because the subject does not come before the direct and indirect object. It should be instead "Te voy a contar." Now, when translating "I am going to tell you everything," you would say: "Te lo voy a contar todo."