"I am going to tell you everything."
Translation:Te lo voy a contar todo.
The use of los/las instead of their singular forms after "se" apparently is a widespread issue, maybe even error. RAE calls it something like improper transfer of the plural clitic form. At the heart of it is that the indirect object clitic becomes se even if it stands for les. And this lost plural shifts to the direct object clitic. RAE seems to frown on this: http://goo.gl/ra29oy
It looks like on 26 July 2014 we still lack the explanation for how "los", instead of the expected "lo", doubles the "todo"in the translation Duo believes to be correct.
FWIW, in the reverse tree version of this sentence discussion, one of the highest rated comments is the following by CarlosGuis:
"A ustedes se los voy a contar todo creo que no está correcto, debería ser A ustedes se lo voy a contar todo, al menos en España no suena bien."
So that native speaker also appears not to be on board with "A ustedes se los voy a contar todo" because of the "los".
"se" is referring to "ustedes" and "los" is referring to "todo" ( I don't know why "los" is used, I think it should be "lo" but there is some explanation above which I'm not sure I understand). I don't think you use le/les ( usted/ustedes) with lo ( it/todo), I think le/les changes to "se" when this is the case (lo/la/los/las are used) and I think it is just because it is easier to pronounce/say "se lo, se los/etc.", or sounds odd to have something like "le lo..." verbalized.
redundant. exactly. that's what i was thinking. the only problem is when you don't use subject pronouns, your answer is marked incorrect.
if DL accepted the answer without los, and recommend us to use los for better spanish, and gave us a candy, there would not be 100 question in here.
With indirect object pronouns, what I've written is standard grammar. BUT, in the case of preposition + infinitive with the reflexive object pronoun, the reflexive object pronoun must be tacked onto the infinitive.
Examples: (Remember, these are for reflexive pronouns only)
Yo leo antes de acostarme. Cenamos después de lavarnos las manos. Después de quitarse las botas, él entra en la casa.
For anyone confused by why it is 'se los':
"If le or les are immediately followed by an object pronoun beginning with l, i.e. by lo, la, los or las, the le or les must be replaced by se."
"There is a widespread tendency in spontaneous Latin-American speech to show that se stands for les by pluralizing the direct object pronoun, i.e. se los dije, for se lo dije a ellos/ellas." ... "It is vehemently rejected in Spain."
Source: John Butt & Carmen Benjamin, "A New Reference Grammar of Modern Spanish"
That's a good question. In this case, the singular noun "everything" is used in the English, which is translated to the Spanish singular noun "todo." The plural in Spanish doesn't match the singular in English, therefore "todos" doesn't work. Also, it is far more common to say "todo" when expressing the general concept of "everything" in Spanish.
Hi diesch! Ok, so "decirte" is "decir" + "te," as you've suggested. The alternative is, as yoonna mentioned, "te lo voy a decir todo." The sentence "voy a te decir todo" is wrong, because the indirect object pronoun "te" is never placed between verbs, but either before "(a ti) te lo voy a decir todo," or attached to the end of the infinitive "(voy a decirte todo (a ti)." (Just a minor note: the "a ti" is implied by "te," and is usually omitted in speech).
If that wasn't clear, let me know and I'll do my best to explain it better!
i answered it correctly but sorry, this is really illogical. spanish really doesn't make sense of pronouns and i assume spanish children just memorize what their parents say about the subject. languages don't have to make sense all the time, they're languages, not science. nobody can explain why there are so much "get" in english. and this is one of those illogical situations. just memorize the pattern and continue.