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  5. "Elle n'a plus de pain."

"Elle n'a plus de pain."

Translation:She has no more bread.

March 8, 2013



Why is it not "du pain" here?


In negatives, the partitive articles are replaced with de source: https://www.laits.utexas.edu/tex/gr/det5.html


Basically, you will only use "de" in cases of negative sentences - it means some. "du" some, and so is "de la" (f/m). That is the partitive (part of something).

Des/un/une are indefinite articles - in English they mean "a" or "an".

Le/la/les are definite articles - in English they mean "the".


Should 'she doesn't have bread anymore' be accepted? Or am I misunderstanding?


It was wrong for me, too.


Huh, so this can be both "she does not have more bread" or also "she does not have bread anymore"?


Anymore was considered wrong in my sentence.


It could have been your placement of the word "anymore" that was the problem.

"Anymore" as one word is an adverb meaning "any longer". So you would have to place it at the end of the sentence like mherdeg did and not before the word bread, the way you might place the two words "any more". After all, you would not say in English "She does not have any longer bread?" without sounding odd and as if English is not your native language.

As two words "any more" means "no more" and so it does go before "bread": "She does not have any more bread" is grammatically correct. However, as as one word, the correct way to use "anymore" in this sentence is "She does not have bread anymore".


"She does not have bread anymore." is considered incorrect, and that's why he asked, I think.


It is incorrect. The translation for "she does not have bread anymore" which means "she no longer has any bread" (reference: time) is elle n'a pas de pain désormais.

You could say "she does not have any more bread" meaning besides what you see her holding. The point being that there is no other quantity of bread. But when you say "she does not have bread anymore", then it means it ran out completely. She is not even holding any or hiding any. There is a difference.

The French sentence is talking about not having "an additional quantity" (more) to the one you saw or knew about. It does not necessarily mean the bread has ran out. It may mean that but it may also mean that she does not have more to share or besides what you know about. That is also what its correct and accurate translation "she does not have any more bread" means.

If you use "anymore", you change the meaning of the sentence to mean she has zero bread, which is not exactly what the French sentence conveys.


I think "she does not have more bread" would be "elle n'a pas pluS de pain", with the S pronounced. But correct me if I'm wrong.


With respect Dieuwertje, I think otherwise. I replied "She has no more bread" and was marked correct. As mentioned below, it seems that ne ... plus can mean either "no more" or "not any more".


Why is there no "pas" Usually it's ne pas to negate.


"Ne ... pas" is how you negate something in french, but there are other "ne ... x" constructions. For instance:

Ne ... pas - not

Ne ... plus - no more (or not anymore)

Ne ... que - only

Ne ... guère - hardly any

Ne ... ni ... ni ... ni ... - neither ... nor ... nor ... nor

Ne ... personne - nobody

There's probably some others, but those are the ones I can think of right now.


Yes, I was wondering the same thing. Can anyone provide rules on the usage, or lack thereof, of the word 'pas'?


Some negation statements need the 'pas' and others don't. Also french speakers dont actually use the 'pas' sometimes even though it is technically/gramatically required. I don't have a full list of when the pas is required and when it's not, but it's definitely not required with 'plus' statements where you are saying more/anymore of something. Here's a couple links. Please comment if you find better ones. http://french.about.com/od/grammar/a/negation_inf.htm http://french.about.com/od/grammar/a/negation.htm


"She has no longer bread" is bad English?


It doesn't sound good to the "English ear" and isn't correct. "She no longer has bread" is correct. The only context in which "she has no longer bread" would work would be if you were looking for a really long loaf of bread but could only find one that was 2 feet long (which isn't long enough for you for some reason). So you ask the baker if she has any longer bread. She says no, so you buy the 2 foot long bread. When you leave the store, your friend asks you if you got a the long loaf of bread. You show him the 2 foot long loaf. Your friend asks "Is that it?" with a tone of disgust. You reply "Yeah, she has no longer bread."


During the fuel strike in France a few years ago I was confused, at first, by signs outside petrol stations which said 'plus de gazole'. Not a negative in sight!


The "plus de" is understood as a negative in expressions like that.


Why not "She's out of bread"? This implies she had bread and now no longer has bread.


That is the general idea but it falls in the category of a paraphrase of which there are probably a thousand different ways to express that notion.


Report it. Duo just gave me this structure as its preferred translation in another question (when "she" was "my aunt" and "bread" was "milk" instead), so at the very least, Duo should try to be consistent with itself.


I don't think there is anything to report. The preferred answer for the exercise you reference is no different from this one.


Sometimes if you give an answer that is completely off the mark or in a format Duo was not expecting, then Duo gives you the next closest answer that makes grammatical sense. So that may be what happened in your case. Otherwise for as long as I have been on Duo, paraphrasing is not allowed unless that is the only way for a sentence to be grammatically correct in the target language.


what about of she has no bread


That would be "Elle n'a pas de pain" = She does not have bread. "Elle n'a plus de pain" = She has no more bread.


Here the answer She has no more bread is unproper. I do not understand why.


"She has no more bread" is accepted now. It is correct.


Why not " she hasn't any more bread"? I don' t think 'Got' is a good word


UK English often say "hasn't got" or "has got", etc.


Bad English. I am an English teacher and I would never say "She no longer has bread". It's archaic. I would say she doesn't have bread anymore.


I don't agree that the expression "no longer" is archaic, even if it is more formal these days and not as commonly used. It's certainly not "bad English." "I no longer live there/I don't live there anymore." Two perfectly grammatically correct ways to say the same thing.

The advantage to translating "ne...plus" as "no longer" is that it's more direct and avoids the English use of the auxiliary "doesn't" which isn't part of the French and can be confusing for some people.


And you are right, "no longer" is far from being archaic. If anything, its usage has increased over the years: https://tinyurl.com/yc5bsr3b


Pricillian I could not agree more. It is frustrating to be marked wrong for a correct English sentence and then be corrected with a suggestion that is a little "off" but would be understood in English. I am not a native English speaker.


Ne...plus here translates to "no more"...in this case, "does not have any more bread".

"Anymore" (one word) on the other hand, which would mean "no longer has any bread" (referencing time) would be ne...pas...désormais.


"She doesnt have anymore bread" is incorrect?! Jog on..


The word "anymore" is not interchangeable with the two words "any more." The latter is about quantity, the former about time. So you could say "she doesn't have bread anymore." Or "she doesn't have any more bread." Isn't English confusing? Worse than French.


"She's no more bread." What lol


It is a glitch in DL's algorithm that confuses "she has" with "she is". It is incorrect.


There doesn't seem to be a difference between "no more" and "any more" in the French translations. What am I missing?


Yes, "she has no more bread" "she doesn't have any more bread" (also "she no longer has bread" and " she doesn't have bread anymore") are all ways of saying the same thing in English, but there is only one way in French.

Don't get confused with "she does not have more bread," which would be "Elle n'a pas plus de pain." That doesn't imply that she is completely out of bread, just that she only has a certain amount.


why is she has bread no longer wrong


It's not actually wrong, but very few people would say it that way. It's much more common to put "no longer" before the verb.


she does not have bread anymore... marked wrong????????????????


She is out of bread.. :)


Why wouldn't "She doesn't have more bread" be accepted. The addition of "any" wouldn't change the meaning of the English sentence, right? The "any" is an extraneous adjective.


Why would these translations not work: -"She no longer has some bread." -"She does not have much bread."

  • "She no longer has any bread" - Elle n'a plus de pain
  • "She does not have much bread" - Elle n'a pas beaucoup de pain


she has no more bread


"She does not have more bread." is marked incorrect?


I do not see why it would be marked wrong. I hope you reported it.


It's already been discusses a few times on this thread. That would be "Elle n'a pas plus de pain," and doesn't imply that she is completely out of bread - but does not have more bread than what you see.


Surely @nzchicago, you cannot be serious in your claim that "she has no more bread" is not synonymous to "she does not have more bread"? IMO, the two sentences mean the very same thing.

The sentence that would mean she has none left whatsoever would be "she does not have any more bread".


Well, I don't see it that way. "She has no more bread/she does not have any more bread" are the same to me.

"She does not have more bread" is slightly open to interpretation, but it's the only one which could mean "she still has some bread, but not more than that."


I stand corrected. On giving this a bit more thought, I am now on the same page as you.

Thanks for the mental exercise.


She doesn't have bread anymore why wrong


Your sentence means "She does not have bread now/currently/at the present time"...or "she no longer has bread"...and the way to say that in French is Elle n'a pas de pain désormais.

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