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  5. "Warum haben Sie keine Äpfel?"

"Warum haben Sie keine Äpfel?"

Translation:Why don't you have apples?

July 29, 2017



Shouldn't "Why do you have no apples?" be accepted as well?


That's understandable, but doesn't sound like what a native-speaker would say (at least in the area I'm from).

EDIT: Another moderator has since seen fit to accept this :)


"Why do you have no apples?" or, "Why have you no apples?" are really common where I'm from in the UK. Perhaps it's more of a British English specific way of phrasing such a sentence.


I think "Why do you have no apples?" should be accepted


It has since been added!


Why do you have no apples?

Should definitely be accepted.

Think of the Phrase "Leave no stone unturned". Meaning be thorough.

The phase theoretically should be “Do not leave any stone unturned”. This is perfectly acceptable grammatically and is theoretically more technically correct. But sounds strange to a native speaker because that is not the idiom.

There are no more trains coming, until morning. (sounds better than to me than) There are not any more trains coming, until morning.

As others have said this is very common way of speaking in certain areas of the UK.

The choice over the usage is therefore down to the writer. Both ways are correct translations.


It's since been added.


Ich mag keine Äpfel. Ich denke, sie schmecken furchtbar.

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