https://www.duolingo.com/ZafarSyed

Borges's story

I was reading Borges' story Averroes' Search with the help of an English translation. When I reached this sentence:

"No la causaba el Tahafut, trabajo fortuito, sino un problema de índole filológica vinculado a la obra monumental que lo justificaría ante las gentes: el comentario de Aristóteles."

It's been translated as " work that would justify HIM to all people," meaning the man, whereas the text says IT meaning the book.

Can somebody confirm it please?

July 31, 2017

2 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/Qiunnn

Lo can be used as him in certain circumstances in my understanding but only when going before the verb

August 1, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/ZafarSyed

But what does it refer to here? To the book or to the man?

August 2, 2017
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