Borges's story

I was reading Borges' story Averroes' Search with the help of an English translation. When I reached this sentence:

"No la causaba el Tahafut, trabajo fortuito, sino un problema de índole filológica vinculado a la obra monumental que lo justificaría ante las gentes: el comentario de Aristóteles."

It's been translated as " work that would justify HIM to all people," meaning the man, whereas the text says IT meaning the book.

Can somebody confirm it please?

July 31, 2017


Lo can be used as him in certain circumstances in my understanding but only when going before the verb

August 1, 2017

But what does it refer to here? To the book or to the man?

August 2, 2017
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