Translation:Why didn't she ask herself that question?
How would one phrase it thusly: "why didn't she ask that question herself?"
"Warum hat sie die Frage nicht selbst gestellt?" would be "Why didn't she ask that question by herself?" which tells that she has not asked in person, but someone else did it for her.
I'm guessing that's not the reflexive verb, "sich" is just the object here and can be replaced by any noun/pronoun without changing the verb meaning.
Looks like you're right. "sich stellen" seems to mean "to surrender" and "sich jemandem/etwas (dative) stellen" is listed as "to confront someone/something".
The construction/phrase is eine Frage stellen. Eine Frage fragen is obviously a somewhat awkward construction. If you are asking why not "warum hat sie sich nicht selbst gefragt?" - that's correct too but not the literal translation.
No, "ihr" ("her") would mean that she didn't she ask that question to another woman, but the original question intends to express the backreference to "herself", to the same woman which asks the question, not another woman.
Not a native english speaker, so I am not quite sure about this: can i just say (as a translation of the German phrase), "Why hasn't she posed the question"? Or the mistake is just that the reflexive in "sich stellen" implies to ask something oneself?
It sounds fine; it is just missing the reflexive element like you said. This sentence suggests that "she" should ask herself the question before putting it to others. Maybe she will answer her own question?
Yes, that'd be wrong (or at least unnatural-sounding). The reflexive pronoun generally immediately follows the verb.
In your sentence "herself" is an intensifier: "I asked the question myself." As in, out of all the people here, I was the one who asked the question. In spoken language, "myself" would be louder or emphasized. Other examples: - I saw Brad Pitt himself! - The President himself was there. - You made that yourself.
In the sentence "I ask myself a question," the word "myself" does not intensify, but refers back to the subject (its reflexive). "I" am asking the question AND receiving the question, but in the direct object position "I" becomes "me/myself."
This is more English's fault. Don't blame Duo this time!
You could say:
"Why hasn't she asked..." or
"Why has she not asked..." but not
"Why has not she asked..."
Yes, it's rather inconsistent with the contraction... but that's how it is.
why is "die Frage" translated as "that question"...Duolingo has been hitherto very precise (even rigid I would say) about things like "this" versus "it", and "a" versus "the", and "a" versus "this", and versus "this" versus "the".
"Diese Frage" is not the same as "die Frage" but it's translated that way....there is another multiple choice question in this section the two different phrases words appear and the user is asked to mark the all correct versions; and there too "diese Frage" and "die Frage" are are treated as having the same meaning.
I don't get this. I thought "im Frage stellen" was an idiom like challenge or raise the question. Is it not properly used this way here?
etwas in Frage stellen or etwas infrage stellen does mean to challenge the validity of something, and it's not the same as eine Frage stellen (to ask a question).
im Frage stellen is wrong.
I don't think that sounds correct in English, and neither is it a complete translation of the German sentence. Maybe "Why has she not put the question to herself?" would work, although the suggested translation sounds better to me.