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  5. "¿Quién es aquella persona?"

"¿Quién es aquella persona?"

Translation:Who is that person?

March 9, 2013



So ... aquella is like esa, but for stuff that's further away ?


In Spanish we have three distances. For something nearby esta,estas,este,estos,esto, something far away, esa,esas,ese,esos,eso. And for something further aquella,aquellas,aquel,aquellos,aquello.

Like you only have this and that, normally you translate aquel... like that.


What is the difference between the English and the Spanish demonstratives?

In English we used:

• “this” to talk about what is near the speaker.

• “that” to talk about what is far from the speaker.

But in Spanish we have three “semantic fields”, three differences:

• “este” to talk about what is near the speaker.

• “ese” to talk about what is near the listener.

• “aquel” to talk about what is far from both, speaker and listener.

By the way, it is the same difference about "here and there" and "aqui, ahí and allí or allá"


OK so.... my spanish is "aquel sueno"?

  • 1141

Yes, this sentence means who is that person (over there), across the room from you as opposed to being near to you. It's tricky at first. Hope that clears it up.


In Italy (or at least Naples) they use the chin to gesture towards a direction, as in "over there". It's like pointing but without the finger. I don't know if they do something similar in Spanish speaking countries.


they do that in a lt of places, and buddy, u get a lingo for your exp number


My friend is Filipino and studied in Spain, so I am not sure which influence it is, but he points with his LIPS.


I was taught that "eso" and "esa" are for something far from the speaker but near to the person spoken to, while "aquella" and "aquello" are for something far from both the speaker and the person spoken to.


Aquel is like saying "da drüben" in German. "That __ over there."


Wanna know a strange coincidence? Spanish and Japanese are identical with their this vs. that vs. that over there distinction.

これ koré = esto = this = (close to speaker)
それ soré = eso = that = (close to listener, far from speaker)
あれ aré = aquello = that = (far from speaker and listener)

And then, just like Spanish, Japan distinguishes between determiners used as a pronoun (This is bad. - I love that) or as an adjective (This dog is bad. - I love that dog.)

Pronoun: これ(koré)、それ(soré)、あれ(aré) = esto, eso, aquello
Adjective: この(kono)、その(sono)、あの(ano) = este (-os, -a, -as), ese (-os, -a, -as), aquel (-os, -a, -as)

The only difference is that Spanish only uses the special neuter pronoun forms when the gender of the item is unknown (¿Qué es eso?) whereas Japanese uses them any time the word is a pronoun.

::edit:: The acute accent ´ is not typically used in Japanese transcription, but I added it as a pronunciation aid. It does not indicate stress (Japanese doesn't use a stress accent), but rather that the e is not silent. I did this to prevent the Japanese words koré, soré, and aré from being mispronounced as the English words core, sore, and are. The same convention can be seen occasionally with the word saké, (vs. English "sake") and always with the word Pokémon (vs. English "poke").


How should the different Spanish letters with accents be pronounced? Nowhere on this website have I found a guide.


I wrote out a really complicated example and then I found this. You should read that instead. Let me know if it doesn't help.

I took this directly from the "Tips and notes" section of Basics 1. I wonder if you might have missed it:

Accent Marks

Vowels in Spanish can have an accent mark, such as the "u" in "menú" (menu). One use of the accent mark is to indicate which syllable should be stressed in the pronunciation. For example, in "teléfono" (telephone), the second "e" has the most stress.

Accent marks are also used to distinguish homophones. For example, "él" and "el" are homophones because they have the same pronunciation. However, "él" is a masculine pronoun (meaning "he" or "him") and "el" is a masculine article (meaning "the").


So they do not actually make a difference to the sound of the letter, like a German Umlaut?


Short answer: The acute accent ( ´ ) only indicates stress or distinguished homophones. The diaresis ( ¨ ) indicates a non-silent u.

Long answer: Sound quality? No. Only stress. There are only 5 vowel sounds in standard Spanish. /a/, /e/, /i/, /o/, and /u/ (possibly also /ɛ/ depending on the speaker).

The diaresis¹ (found only on ü) is used in special cases to show that the u is pronounced as /w/ rather than the expected silent vowel in the combinations gue or gui. For example, the word pingüino requires the diaresis for proper pronunciation: /pinˈgwi.no/. Without it, the u would be silent: /pinˈgino/.

gui = /gi/ (guitarra) /giˈtara/
güi = /gwi/ (pingüino) /pinˈgwino/

gue = /ge/ (guerra) /ˈgera/
güe = /gwe/ (bilingüe) /biˈlingwe/

If there were no u or ü in the combinations above, the g would sound like /h/~/ç/~/x/ (Either h as in "happy," "human," or the ch in Scottish loch).

If you see gua, or guo, those u's are always pronounced /w/.

You can read more about that here.

¹Note that the ¨ is a diaresis and not an umlaut. The word umlaut refers only to the German(ic) usage of the ¨ to indicate a sound change.

edit: Formatting


Similar to arabic also.


I wanted to thank you so much for such a usefull information. Really appreciate it ;)


Oh geez aquella, I have a feeling i'm gona have some trouble with you


Aquella = over yonder, in the South (part of the U.S.)


I wish "yonder" would come back in style for the rest of the English speaking world. It is extremely useful. I say it all the time.


I tried "Who is yonder person?" and got it marked wrong. I know this is an old-fashioned/dialectical English form, but I think correct in this application, as SageTX writes below.


Wouldn't "yonder" or "yon" also work? They're archaic, but English used to make the distinction.


Ha ha. It's not archaic in the Southern United States! I use "yonder" all the time. It's a very useful word.


"Who is yonder person?" Quaint maybe, but should be accepted


Could we also use eso, or esa?


'Persona" is always feminine. 'esta persona' = this person, 'esa persona' = that person, and 'aquella persona' = that person over there "eso" is neuter


Nouns in spanish are differentiated with genders. Generally we use this, that, those,these with nouns. Than how could one use 'eso', neuter one.


¿Qué es eso? (What is that?) Queremos esto/eso/estos/esos. (We want this/that/these/those.) No puedo comprender esto/eso/estos/esos. (I can't understand this/that/these/those.)


Thanks. Very helpful.


How come they give "Who is that person over there" as a possible answer? Is the "over there" supposed to be a literal translation?


It's not a literal translation in my opinion, who is that person over there? Would be translated to «¿Quíen es esa/aquella persona de allá?». I think Duo is a bit confused about the meaning of aquella. We normally use aquella to refer to objects that are far, but in reality it means the object is at the same distance from the speaker and the listener, and that doesn't mean the object is far away.


I read this in a comment on another question: apparently the difference between "eso" and "aquel" is that the former implies the thing is closer in proximity and the latter implies it is further in proximity. Hence, "Who is that person over there?" is a little more accurate.


Should not "Who is that person there?" be accepted?


I put who is that person and got it right


Why do we have to add "over there?" Would it not mean the same if you said "who is that person?"


See previous discussion.


Yes, I agree wouldn't "over there" be implied?


"La persona" does that imply it is necessarily a woman? or could it be a male person? All other uses seem to default to men which includes women...


this is so confusing


So the "over there" isn't actually a word. It is just assumed to go with the sentence. It should be "¿Quién es esa persona allí ?"


how is it possible to have "over there?" when there is not enough letters??? im very confused


It's me, obviously.


Why can't you just say who is that? That implies that there is a person present right?


Why can't I use "this"


Anyone else having a problem with the speaking where you press the start button and before you can even speak it immediately decides your wrong fails you?


I English we would say "who is that" with person being understood. To put in 2person2 might even suggest they were undesirable.


Not that this has anything to do with this conversation but has anyone noticed that it is impossible to get the mach the letter questions wrong? Like if u have.


This is messed up, i pressed skip and it marked me wrong!?


Okay, so what is the aquel/aquella version for esto and eso?

I mean, Duolingo (and many other references) explain that esto and eso are neuter forms used in sentences where you don't really know whether the object is masculine or feminine (e.g. Qué es esto/eso). What if I wanted to ask "What is that over there?" Is it "Qué es aquello"?


it also accepted, "who is that person over there?"

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