They're using the possessive structure "object + de + person". In this case, "chemise d'un ami" translates naturally into english as "a friend's shirt". Similarly, the phrase "stylo de Paul" translates into "Paul's pen", not "pen from Paul".
Yes, it is, because de (d') does not translate to from. It translates to 'of' or '(noun)'s'.
I WOULD say the difference is the word used, but after some digging, it seems like I might be wrong.
It seems like 'de' can mean 'from' after all, though I didn't see it under Duolingo's menu so I had assumed it was 'dès'. My bad!
Technically it is incorrect I think. Duolingo is looking for a literal translation, but the two phrases mean nearly the same thing. At least in English.
One phrase refers to a friend. The other refers to my friend.
The first accurately translates the example given. The second phrase uses words not included in the example to say somewhat the same thing. The possessive nature of my friend suggests more closeness than the first phrase.
"I have the shirt of a friend" Would you really say that in english?
If you happen to have the shirt of a friend and you wanted to tell someone else, this sentence seems like a good way to do it.
Just to clarify... IF I wanted to say “I have the shirt of MY friend”, would it be: “J’ai la chemise de mon ami”?
It's a terribly awkward sentence, but not grammatically incorrect. Still, it probably should be changed to something more normal.
If the idea is to translate the phrase to english, "I have my friend's shirt." is the same meaning, and more accurately the way the French would translate into everyday english usage. We would never say "I have a friend's shirt." This seems close enough to be an acceptable answer. If the intent on writing in French is to use the language as the French do, then the reverse translations should do the same.
i have the shirt of a friend, is incorrect and that is what Duolingo said. I wrote ' i have my friend's shirt' -- honestly, no big diff!