It may be pedantic these days, but it's surely not wrong to say, "To whom do you write?" Duolingo marked this wrong. Yet "Whom are you writing to?" is counted as correct.
This is an old myth, based on people trying to force English to follow Latin's grammatic patterns. Here's the Oxford English Dictionary's blog on its history and when and why English propositions do often belong at the sentence end: https://blog.oxforddictionaries.com/2011/11/28/grammar-myths-prepositions/
Yes, but only for the time it is written. Drift happens constantly, and grammar rules can never fully encompass a language. Don't take me wrong, grammar rules are good, doubly so when learning a language. I appreciate the effort Duolingo puts in to make sure the material and translations include many variants. Good luck to you and your team. Language is messy, and properly teaching it is hard work.
What's the difference?
1) Wem schreibst du?
2) Wen siehst du?
Does the first one get dative because you write TO someone, or does "schreiben" always take the dative? What's the real difference here?
It's not a hard concept, as the notions of writing "to" and "seeing" someone are similar between German and English, but I want to make sure I'm getting the nuance correct.
schreiben can take two objects: a recipient in the dative case and some writing in the accusative case.
- Ich schreibe meinem Bruder. (recipient only)
- Ich schreibe einen Brief. (writing only)
- Ich schreibe meinem Bruder einen Brief. (both)
So Was schreibst du? (with accusative) would also be a possible question, if you are asking about the writing rather than the recipient.
I'm surprised that if this really is standard American English, and not a New England regional form, it is not accepted. Usually problems arise in cases where American English is assumed by Duolingo to be the only correct answer. For example, I have sometimes been marked wrong for translating "bathroom" as "Badzimmer" because "bathroom" seems to mean "toilet" in America. I hope that when an American says he is "cooking on gas", he doesn't mean that his kitchen stove is powered by petroleum spirit!
Here is a nice article on American English, the verb "to write" and the prepositions it does and does not require in Standard American English.. Although the exact phrase "who are you writing" isn't mentioned, I think "I write them" is equivalent, given that we've already noted that "whom" is rarely used. (The author is also appropriately tart about those who hint that others dialects are incorrect.) https://separatedbyacommonlanguage.blogspot.com/2009/10/write-to-someone.html?m=1
Not in the UK. If it were "Who(m) are you phoning to?" then the "to" is unnecessary, but with writing it is needed.
A strong clue is the German. English follows the same rules, so "whom" would be correct. There are some people who would use "who," some people who would consider it acceptable, and some who would consider it bad grammar. However, nobody would claim that "whom" is incorrect, so it's a better word to use.
Yes, it should be either, "To whom are you writing?" or colloquially, "Who are you writing to?"
If the question is about the subject, use wer. Wer bist du? -- Who are you? Wer ist er? Who is he? (That's how I rember to use wer)
If the question is about the object of a sentance, then use you use wen or wem. It depends on the case the verb takes.
Wen is for accustive case.
Who does he see? Wen seit er? Accustative case.
Wem is for dative case. Whom in English - at least in this example.
To whom are you writing? Wem schribst du?
I hope this helps.
So is wem a direct translation of whom?
English merged the old dative and accusative cases into a single objective case, while German still has them separate.
So English objective-case "whom" can correspond to German dative wem or to German accusative wen.
(The words "whom" and wem are ultimately related.)
Oh Duo, could you please learn some English first?
My answer: Whom do you write to
You have a typo.
Who do you write to?
Do I write to he? Really? I realise that too many English speakers, particularly in the States can't tell the difference between "who" (nominative) and "whom" (objective), but that's not the reason to mark a grammatically superior answer as a typo. (And please spare me from the lecture about "To whom...", which is certainly correct but is not required; there is no rule about placing the preposition in front in English, as has already been pointed out in this thread).
Not in the UK. It's either, "To whom are you writing?" or "Who are you writing to?"
Duo should use 'wessen' here, as it is hard to distinguish if the computer is saying Wen or Wem. At least Wessen would clearly be understood. Wenn can be translated as 'When Are You Writing', where if you use 'Wessen', then it is clearly understood Who you are writing to; thus, Wessen schreibst do (who are you writing to).
Duo should use 'wessen' here
What do you think wessen means?
if you use 'Wessen', then it is clearly understood Who you are writing to; thus, Wessen schreibst do (who are you writing to).
Wessen schreibt du? would be "Whose are you writing to?"
It makes no sense in either language.
schreiben does not take the genitive case, so wessen does not belong there.
I think that "whom" is correct and "who" is incorrect, technically. But it would be understandable for "who" to be accepted as a colloquial variant. But, I think that "who" is a subject while "whom" is an object. The preferred answer should probably be one with "whom".
Or, is this just an old part of the English language that is being widely discarded? Not quite sure.
In my earlier message, I certainly didn't mean what "who" should not be accepted - I just meant that "whom" should not be marked as incorrect. I've since had feedback to say that "whom" is now accepted too.