"I like to eat."
I think in general, in French, if you have two verbs right after each other, only the first is conjugated to agree with the subject ( ie J'aime) while the second is usually infinitive (ie manger). Infinitive is considered to be the "basic" form of the verb, that does not indicate a specific tense or subject.
As others have mentioned, we often do the same in english: in English to + verb is sometimes also called an infinitive. We can see in the following sentences: I try to eat, He tries to eat, I tried to eat, the verb "to try" changes form in each sentence to match the subject and tense of the sentence. However, the verb "to eat" is NOT conjugated, and is the same in all three sentences, because it is comes second. The same logic, I believe, applies in French.
This is a good way to think of it, especially when you think of how "eat" would change.
I try to eat, He tries to eat, I tried to eat
--- vs ---
I eat, He eats, I ate
Thank you, Jmarzw
"Manger" is the infinitive form. Infinitive means not bound to a particular tense, like "go" in "to boldly go where no man has gone before." "Mange" would mean "I like to read in the present."
"je mange" is verb manger conjugated at 1st person, indicative present tense = I eat (or I am eating)
Could someone explain in simple words that why not " J'aime mange" n why "J'aime manger" ?? below given comments are not clear enough.
a number of verbs like aimer, pouvoir, vouloir... are constructed with an infinitive form and no preposition:
so, j'aime manger , je peux manger, je veux manger...
to eat = manger. I like to eat - j'aime manger eat = mange. I eat - je mange
Manger is the verb you would find in the dictionary When placing a pronoun in front of an er verb (a verb ending in er), you take the "stem or root" verb and add on the necessary endings. Like for nous it becomes nous mangeons thus making the added part 'ons' but that is only for nous. All pronouns tu, vous etc have different endings. Er verbs are the most common in french but there is 'ir' and 're' verbs and they require new "endings"
"aimer" is like a modal verb, it is followed by an infinitive, with no need for any preposition.
I thought 'aimer' = 'to love', 'vouloir' = 'to like'. Maybe it's what the kids would say nowadays. I'm just curious when it went to 'I love to eat' is the more acceptable format.
aimer = to like or to love
vouloir = to want
"I love to eat" = j'adore manger.
Don't downvote Mat. Duh in this sense was towards himself and not the person. Self chastising is a means to focus harder You can tell as he thanked them after. Usually only people who are strangers or fighting say Duh in a negative overtone. Your back at 0 for what its worth Mat Ellis.
Yeah, I always it was "j'aime mange" only because when you click on the word "mange" it shows, "(I) mange." And "j'aime" is only the conjunction of "I like." Can somebody help me out as to why it is "j'aime manger" and not j'aime mange? (If you get what I meant about before.)
Basic rule: you cannot get two conjugated verbs one after another.
The second one can be:
- a past participle, with all compound tenses: j'ai mangé = I have eaten
- an infinitive: j'aime manger.
"je" has to elide (drop the vowel and replace it by an apostrophe) in front of a word starting with a vowel sound:
The French verbs are conjugated.
I, You, We, They eat
He, she, it eats
Je, Il mange
But there is "infinitive". To eat. In French, infinitive takes -er if it a verb from the first group. To eat - manger