"Avoir des frites"

Translation:Have some fries

March 11, 2013

7 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/dapetras

The English translation sounds imperative. Should there not be some sort of imperative in French also?

March 11, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf

No, because the French imperative form is not similar to the infinitive:

  • Aie des frites (2nd person singular)
  • Ayons des frites (1st person plural)
  • Ayez des frites (2nd person plural)

by the way, we would not use verb "avoir" in that case, but "prendre":

  • Prends des frites (2nd person singular)
  • Prenons des frites (1st person plural)
  • Prenez des frites (2nd person plural)
March 12, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/ArkanGaulson

So statements like "Here, have some nuts." or "Take a couple of my beers." wouldn't be imperative statements in French?

April 26, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf

Yes, indeed when you are faced with human beings.

However, "having fries" or "have fries" are often equivalent to "avoir des frites", in longer sentences, like "avoir des frites au déjeuner est fréquent dans les cantines scolaires" (having fries at lunch in school canteens is frequent).

Also note that the infinitive verb form also replaces imperative in writing in recipes and user manuals.

April 27, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/ArkanGaulson

Understood. Thank you. :)

April 27, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/shriramk

Why "have" and not "get"?

March 12, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/SourireCache

Manger des frites. Prendre des frites. Avoir des frites.

Eating fries/Taking fries/Having fries?

March 25, 2014
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