"There are hers and yours."
Translation:Il y a la sienne et la tienne.
Hi. Why can't it be: Il y a la sienne et le tien. As in there are hers and yours, referring to a man? A man can own a feminine gender object, right?
In such a sentence "hers" and "yours" refer to the same thing/object, for instance: her husband and your husband(s) or her dress and your dress(es), etc.
Therefore, you have to pair the genders in your translation, remembering that French possessives agree with the possession and give no indication of the owner's gender.
- le sien et le tien/vôtre
- la sienne et la tienne/vôtre.
The only mix you can use is singular/plural because "hers" and "yours" do not tell us how many objects are concerned per owner:
- le sien et les tiens/vôtres
- la sienne et les tiennes/vôtres
- les siens et le tien/vôtre
- les siennes et la tienne/vôtre
Oh, ok. I get that part of it now. Thank you, Sitesurf! So, is there a way to tell if the owner is a man or a woman? Or would that rely on previous context? And could you give me an example, please?
Yes, context would shed light on the owner's gender.
- Voici ton stylo (masc. sing.) et celui de ta soeur == le tien et le sien
- Il y a tes chaussettes (fem. plur.) et celles de ta soeur == les tiennes et les siennes.
In the above examples, we still don't know the gender of the person spoken to with "ton/tes". Yet, with "tu" we know it is one person (vs vous/you).
Given that we are refering to a known object, previously mentionned, souldn't we use the pronoun "en" in the French sentence? "Il y en a le síen et le vôtre"?
"Il y en a du sien et du vôtre" = There is some of hers/his and some of yours, as a reference to uncountable things.
The english sentence doesn't really make sense, surely it should be they are hers and yours or it is hers and yours
Why not plural - is "il y a" excused from being conjugated as "ils y ont"?
Yes, "il y a" is a set phrase to translate both "there is" and "there are".
"Il y en a des siens et des vôtres" = There are some of hers/his and some of yours, referring to countable things.
Is there any reason voilà le sien et le tien cannot be used here? The context may be different in French, but wouldn't both Il y a and voilà fit the English phrase?
Everywhere in the course "il y a" translates to "there is/are" and vice-versa.
The reason is that "il y a" is just stating the presence of something somewhere. It is quite vague.
"Voici/voilà" are much more precise. Remembering that "voici/voilà" actually mean "see here/see there", you can tell for yourself that with those 2 words, you are more emphatically pointing out something or someone.
As a consequence, only "here is/are" is translated to "voici/voilà" and vice-versa.
They tell us that its here, but the don't say that the "yours" is feminine. That part would have been pretty helpful.
"yours" can be singular or plural, and in French masculine or feminine.
Therefore to translate "yours", here are the possibities:
- with "tu": le tien, la tienne, les tiens, les tiennes
- with "vous": le vôtre, la vôtre, les vôtres
It could be "le tien" instead of la tienne since the gender isn't known
There's no way of knowing in either language. The reason that the pronouns sienne and tienne are feminine is due to the gender of the objects that 'you' and 'she' own. Now, of course, in this exercise the objects are not known, and the English sentence could just as easily translate as: "Il y a le sien et le tien", where the pronouns stand in for a masculine object, similarly unknown due to lack of context.
If this is confusing, remember this is no different to how possessive adjectives work in French. You don't say "mon mère" even if you're male; you say "ma mère" because your mother is female, and mère is a feminine noun.
I was marked wrong for putting "la tienne" first. Is there a meaningful distinction between the word orders or is this just to make sure I know which word is which?
"Hers" can translate to: le sien, la sienne, les siens, les siennes.
"Yours" can translate to: le tien, la tienne, les tiens, les tiennes + le vôtre, la vôtre, les vôtres.
Any combination can work in translation, provided you keep the word order.
could someone please explain the use of il y a? what does it translate to and why not use ce sont or something? thanks
"Il y a" is used to mean and translate "there is" or "there are".
- There is an apple = il y a une pomme
- There are apples = il y a des pommes.
"ce sont" means and translates to "they are" or "these are" or "those are".
- They are my parents = ce sont mes parents
- These are apples = ce sont des pommes
- Those are apples = ce sont des pommes.
Why wouldn't "Voilà la sienne et la tienne" be acceptable in place of "il y a"?
There ARE your book and mine, refused. DL says we have to use IS. Ok... And now here is this sentence. There ARE hers and yours. So, I don't understand anything more... Completely illogical...
Since we don't know if the object is masculine or feminine why isn't "il y a le sien et le mien? Correct?
I was interpreting as "hers and yours are over there" and used "voilà," instead of "Il y a" and was marked wrong. Could i have used it? As in "here are mine and there are hers and yours"