"There are hers and yours."

Translation:Il y a la sienne et la tienne.

September 5, 2017

33 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/lovele4rnin-
  • 25
  • 18
  • 18
  • 18
  • 11
  • 11
  • 11
  • 10
  • 2
  • 672

Hi. Why can't it be: Il y a la sienne et le tien. As in there are hers and yours, referring to a man? A man can own a feminine gender object, right?

September 25, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
Mod
  • 25
  • 25
  • 9
  • 8

In such a sentence "hers" and "yours" refer to the same thing/object, for instance: her husband and your husband(s) or her dress and your dress(es), etc.

Therefore, you have to pair the genders in your translation, remembering that French possessives agree with the possession and give no indication of the owner's gender.

  • le sien et le tien/vôtre
  • la sienne et la tienne/vôtre.

The only mix you can use is singular/plural because "hers" and "yours" do not tell us how many objects are concerned per owner:

  • le sien et les tiens/vôtres
  • la sienne et les tiennes/vôtres
  • les siens et le tien/vôtre
  • les siennes et la tienne/vôtre
September 25, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/lovele4rnin-
  • 25
  • 18
  • 18
  • 18
  • 11
  • 11
  • 11
  • 10
  • 2
  • 672

Oh, ok. I get that part of it now. Thank you, Sitesurf! So, is there a way to tell if the owner is a man or a woman? Or would that rely on previous context? And could you give me an example, please?

September 25, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
Mod
  • 25
  • 25
  • 9
  • 8

Yes, context would shed light on the owner's gender.

  • Voici ton stylo (masc. sing.) et celui de ta soeur == le tien et le sien
  • Il y a tes chaussettes (fem. plur.) et celles de ta soeur == les tiennes et les siennes.

In the above examples, we still don't know the gender of the person spoken to with "ton/tes". Yet, with "tu" we know it is one person (vs vous/you).

September 26, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/lovele4rnin-
  • 25
  • 18
  • 18
  • 18
  • 11
  • 11
  • 11
  • 10
  • 2
  • 672

Thanks so much, Sitesurf!

September 27, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/M.parlange
  • 25
  • 25
  • 25
  • 11

Given that we are refering to a known object, previously mentionned, souldn't we use the pronoun "en" in the French sentence? "Il y en a le síen et le vôtre"?

November 28, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
Mod
  • 25
  • 25
  • 9
  • 8

"Il y en a du sien et du vôtre" = There is some of hers/his and some of yours, as a reference to uncountable things.

November 28, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/JonathanDa351129

Merci beaucoup,

February 1, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Maltagerr

The english sentence doesn't really make sense, surely it should be they are hers and yours or it is hers and yours

October 3, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/esha9751
  • 14
  • 11
  • 11
  • 10
  • 10
  • 10
  • 10
  • 10
  • 9
  • 9

Why not plural - is "il y a" excused from being conjugated as "ils y ont"?

September 9, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
Mod
  • 25
  • 25
  • 9
  • 8

Yes, "il y a" is a set phrase to translate both "there is" and "there are".

September 15, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/M.parlange
  • 25
  • 25
  • 25
  • 11

Why not "il y en a des siens et des vôtres"?

November 28, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
Mod
  • 25
  • 25
  • 9
  • 8

"Il y en a des siens et des vôtres" = There are some of hers/his and some of yours, referring to countable things.

November 28, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/lorei2018

I had the same Q. Thanks @sitesurf, good refresher.

September 7, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/SBURNILL

Is there any reason voilà le sien et le tien cannot be used here? The context may be different in French, but wouldn't both Il y a and voilà fit the English phrase?

June 20, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
Mod
  • 25
  • 25
  • 9
  • 8

Everywhere in the course "il y a" translates to "there is/are" and vice-versa.

The reason is that "il y a" is just stating the presence of something somewhere. It is quite vague.

"Voici/voilà" are much more precise. Remembering that "voici/voilà" actually mean "see here/see there", you can tell for yourself that with those 2 words, you are more emphatically pointing out something or someone.

As a consequence, only "here is/are" is translated to "voici/voilà" and vice-versa.

June 20, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/KatelynQui8

They tell us that its here, but the don't say that the "yours" is feminine. That part would have been pretty helpful.

October 4, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
Mod
  • 25
  • 25
  • 9
  • 8

"yours" can be singular or plural, and in French masculine or feminine.

Therefore to translate "yours", here are the possibities:

  • with "tu": le tien, la tienne, les tiens, les tiennes
  • with "vous": le vôtre, la vôtre, les vôtres
October 4, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Anniepannie1

Nobody ever says anything like that in English.

January 26, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/janiesnowden

It could be "le tien" instead of la tienne since the gender isn't known

February 7, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/LRM143144

How do you know, from the English, that "you" is a girl or woman?

September 5, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/KolonelSpons

There's no way of knowing in either language. The reason that the pronouns sienne and tienne are feminine is due to the gender of the objects that 'you' and 'she' own. Now, of course, in this exercise the objects are not known, and the English sentence could just as easily translate as: "Il y a le sien et le tien", where the pronouns stand in for a masculine object, similarly unknown due to lack of context.

If this is confusing, remember this is no different to how possessive adjectives work in French. You don't say "mon mère" even if you're male; you say "ma mère" because your mother is female, and mère is a feminine noun.

September 5, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/nikipound
  • 16
  • 12
  • 10

I was marked wrong for putting "la tienne" first. Is there a meaningful distinction between the word orders or is this just to make sure I know which word is which?

November 26, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
Mod
  • 25
  • 25
  • 9
  • 8

"Hers" can translate to: le sien, la sienne, les siens, les siennes.

"Yours" can translate to: le tien, la tienne, les tiens, les tiennes + le vôtre, la vôtre, les vôtres.

Any combination can work in translation, provided you keep the word order.

November 26, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Natalia754514
  • 13
  • 13
  • 12
  • 7
  • 7
  • 6
  • 5

My guess is the latter.

March 2, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Pete477125

could someone please explain the use of il y a? what does it translate to and why not use ce sont or something? thanks

March 22, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
Mod
  • 25
  • 25
  • 9
  • 8

"Il y a" is used to mean and translate "there is" or "there are".

  • There is an apple = il y a une pomme
  • There are apples = il y a des pommes.

"ce sont" means and translates to "they are" or "these are" or "those are".

  • They are my parents = ce sont mes parents
  • These are apples = ce sont des pommes
  • Those are apples = ce sont des pommes.
March 23, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/D9PyKDFm

Why wouldn't "Voilà la sienne et la tienne" be acceptable in place of "il y a"?

July 31, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/khaledkung

il y a la sienne et le tien

September 2, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Jason438600
  • 25
  • 25
  • 14
  • 13
  • 13
  • 6
  • 162

There ARE your book and mine, refused. DL says we have to use IS. Ok... And now here is this sentence. There ARE hers and yours. So, I don't understand anything more... Completely illogical...

September 6, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/JanisB3
  • 20
  • 4
  • 233

Since we don't know if the object is masculine or feminine why isn't "il y a le sien et le mien? Correct?

December 22, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/shunting65

I was interpreting as "hers and yours are over there" and used "voilà," instead of "Il y a" and was marked wrong. Could i have used it? As in "here are mine and there are hers and yours"

March 16, 2019
Learn French in just 5 minutes a day. For free.