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  5. "To jablko mám já."

"To jablko mám já."

Translation:I have the apple.

September 7, 2017

24 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/arzew
  • 1378

Can it also be: 'Ja mam to jablko.'? Which sounds more natural?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/fehrerdef

"já mám to jablko" is more neutral, whereas "to jablko mám já" stresses the "I", just like in "it is ME who has that apple"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/pma4w89A

Uhm, ME has that apple. I would prefer "it is I who have that apple" => I have that apple not me have or me has. Yay, I just bearded the lion in his own den ;D

But is is hard to show emphasis with capitalized "I" so it's usually done with "I MYSELF"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/predek

Is jablko always pronounced this way? In Polish we have jabłko, but virtually everyone pronounces it as japko.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kacenka9

Right. Jablko is proper and you can hear it but you would also hear "jabko'. Some people would even argue that it is the proper spelling....


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/predek

Shouldn't the 'b' be devoiced to 'p' because of the 'k'?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kacenka9

depending on who pronounces it, yes, it could sound as a P.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AgnusOinas

No, not depending on who pronounces it. "b" always becomes devoiced before "k" and is realized as /p/.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/pma4w89A

but doesn't the 'l' come before the 'k'? not the 'b'? jablko?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VladaFu

@pma4w89A They are discussing "jabko" (colloquial), not "jablko", please check the thread from the beginning.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ScorpioQ86

I have learned that Czech doesn't use typical english style articles like a and the and that to, ta, te really mean that in english. The in english is different from that and I wonder if this should really be considered correct.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kacenka9

The problem is that in absence of articles you sometimes still have to express the fact that we know what car, apple, child we are talking about. And in such a case there really is not much of a selection and one has to use a pronoun.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/chris417662

Hi, is it also possible to say "that apple is mine"? Thanks


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kacenka9

No. Well, you can say that but it would not be translation of the above. Your sentence in Czech would be "to jablko je moje". But just because you have an apple, it does not mean it is yours. Replace the apple with car keys. You happen to carry your friend's car keys, because she has no pockets or something. You have the keys but they, nor the car, is yours.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MihaBogata

How about "I have that apple" instead of "I have the apple"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

That is also accepted.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/imaldastar

why is the "ja" necessary here?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

Here is my GUESS: Because "já" appears at the end of the sentence, it is used to emphasize that "I" am the one who has the apple, not someone else. This does not affect the basic English translation, because intonation would indicate the emphasis in English.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/endless_sleeper

Not a guess. You're right, it's additional emphasis. ;)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Irene62656

Wouldnt it traslate as "the apple I have?"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

Maybe you're literally translating the Czech sentence as "the apple have I" and switching that around to make more sense in English as "the apple I have." That, as VladaFu points out, is just a phrase, while the original is a complete sentence. So, taking that into account, we read it as "I have the apple," because the alternative word order doesn't work in English. The placement of at the end of the Czech sentence emphasizes that "I" have the apple, not someone else, as fehrerdef has explained.

UPDATE -- Strictly speaking, "The apple I have" could also serve as a complete sentence, but the word order is non-standard and, apart from use in the context of poetry or song lyrics, it sounds quite unnatural.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VladaFu

"the apple I have" is not a sentence, it is just "the apple that I have", "jablko, které mám já".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/fehrerdef

Well, in English you can leave out relative pronouns if they denote the object of the relative clause. So "The apple I have" means the same as "The apple that/which I have."
But of course this is not what the given Czech sentence says, but would indeed be "jablko, které mám já".
(and of course, in that case it is not a complete sentence, but nobody expects Duo to only treat complete sentences).

But maybe the OP was only puzzled by the word order. In English word order is rather strict. So apart from an interpretation including a relative clause "The apple I have" is not an option as an alternative for "I have the apple". In Czech, however, word order is much more flexible, so you can put the words you want to particularly stress in specific positions, usually at the end of the sentence. And so, instead of the neutral "(já) mám to jablko" you can say ""to jablko mám já", which stresses the "I", like saying "I have the apple" or even "It's me who has the apple" (and not another person).

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