"Ne, psa nevidím."

Translation:No, I do not see a dog.

September 9, 2017

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Is psa here in the negation accusative or genitive ? In polish this would be a genitive.


Accusative and genitive have same form for masculine animate gender. But you can recognize concrete cases from the sentences.

We learn at school "case questions"and a "help word" for every case.: For genitive is it (BEZ) koho? čeho? (without) who what? and for accusative - (VIDÍM) koho? co? ( I can see) who what?

for example: GEN: (bez) psa, but (bez) stroje and ACC: (vidím) psa but (vidím) stroj.


Thanks for your answer. I understand your use of the cases as it is similar to German (so far). I only wondered because this very sentence in Polish would use an accusative object in a positive statement (I see that dog) and Genitive in a negative statement (I don't see that dog) Of course in the sg it would make no difference in czech but it would in the plural. So I suppose if you use Genitive both ways, it should be:

ty psy nevidím - I don't see those dogs.


Word "psy" is always only plural accusative. Plural genitive is (bez) "psů".


Yes that is why I mentioned the example. Thanks again. I learned something :D


Seems Czech has some tracks of it in proverbs and archaic language, right? E.g.: "Nechval dne před večerem." (Don't praise the day before the evening/ roughly means: Don't get your hopes up too early)

Also constructions with ani (ni) apparently, though it's very bookish and archaic language which is beyond our level still. :p


Yes, the negative or partitive genitive is bookish or archaic.

Ani is fine and is taught in this course. Ni instead of ani is archaic or bookish as well. You can also encounter the negative genitive after these (neznáš dne ani hodiny).


Accusative. vidět + accusative = 'see sth/sb'


Psa nevidím = I don't see a dog

How do you say The dog doesn't see?


isn't "can't see" also correct - it is more usual in english


Correct and accepted everywhere in the course.

If something wasn't accepted, you must report the complete sentence.


Why is pes psa here, I don't understand the explanation above


Which explanation? You can reply directly there.

It is the accusative case for a direct object. Did you read the Tips and notes of this skill?


Why do I get a wright answer with Vidim psa

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