“She has been married for two years” is a simple statement of fact. “She has been married ALREADY for two years” described the feeling of the years passing quickly. It seems to me that “už” (translated as “already”) should be included in the main translation above. Someone please correct me if I’m wrong, and let me know why and how “už” is used here.
Adverbs usually go after has or have when using the present perfect.
We usually put already in the normal mid position for adverbs (between the subject and the main verb, or after the modal verb or first auxiliary verb, or after be as a main verb): We already knew that he was coming to visit. ... We don't use already between a verb and a direct object: I've already made the coffee.
It's grammatically correct with "for." However, at least in the US, in sentences like this, constructions without "for" are often used: I've worked here six years -- He's been there four weeks -- She'll be out of work three days. I will add alternatives without "for," if it's deemed appropriate, as there are a number of reports for this.
Both "dva" and "roky" are in the accusative, which looks the same as the nominative for all numbers (expect feminine number 1: "jedna" -> "jednu"). All these expressions of how long something lasts use the accusative and they will all look like nominative unless the noun is a feminine noun ending in -a.
Budu tam... (I'll be there for...) jeden den/týden/měsíc/rok, dva/tři/čtyři dny/týdny/měsíce/roky. But for example jednu zimu (one winter) or jednu hodinu (one hour) - here we can see that it's actually accusative.
And the rule that after numbers 5+ the following word(s) must be in genitive plural still applies, even in these situation where the number itself is in accusative: Trvalo to... (It lasted/took...) pět týdnů/měsíců/roků/let. Už sedm roků/let je vdaná.
Thank you, your help is very useful and your answers are always exhaustive. I started to learn Czech during the isolation and since that I have revealed some difficulties with learning by myself. I could do it in my native language (Russian), but this course for English speakers seems to me more consistent and logical than just grammar information in paper textbooks.
More likely than not, but the difference in the endings of the words urges me to look for a some catch. More than that, in Russian I haven't accustomed to use grammar rules due to something like an intuitive literacy formed by the grate number of fiction books that I've read (but this way to form the literacy could be described as a questionable one - and I doubt that this is possible in the case of a foreign language).