Now I get it. It would have to be 'who's coat is it'. (belonging is the key, I think)
hmmm, unfortunately "who's" means "who is / who has" contracted, so that's not a valid answer. "Whose is the coat" and "Whose coat it is" should be accepted...
A bit literal? Doesn't it imply "who owns the coat?" (without having to use posseder or something like that).
I'm a native English speaker for whom "jacket" and "coat" mean the same thing. Yet "manteau" is translated as coat and "veste" as jacket. Any thoughts on this people?
The French are picky when it comes to clothes.
Un manteau is a coat (or overcoat).
A jacket is "une veste" or "un blouson" (+ "un caban" or "une doudoune" or "un anorak"...)
The difference is the length: "une veste (+ others listed above) gets down at mid-thighs maximum.
A coat goes down from mid-thigh to ankles.
Thanks Sitesurf. That's fair enough but in the UK coat and jacket tend to be used interchangeably and as an English teacher I wouldn't split hairs over the issue.
This info would be useful on the reverse course for French speakers learning English, actually.
Disappointed that this does not take the English phrase "Whose coat?" The existing phrases are not very common grammar in English.
"le manteau" = the coat - in most cases
but in this sentence, you have to use a different construction because the two languages do not match.
if you want to see THE, you can use: "whom does THE coat belong to?"
Why doesn't translated the Douolingo the article "the" before coat? It's about a certain coat, so I thought I must translate it.
Because "whose" in front of a noun does not take an article. "Whom does the coat belong to?" would change the word order then re-establish the need for the article.
I said "Whose is the jacket?" And got it wrong. Is "manteau" always specifically "coat"?
How come 'who owns the coat" didn't work? SOmetimes I dK how to phrase the english sentence in French OK ?
This construction with "à" is comparable with "to whom does this belong?"
If you drop "à", the question back translates to "who is the coat?" (weird!)
Why did we use "DE qui" when we asked the same question about the child?
I used, "To whom belongs the coat?" Is it an incorrect translation?
It's a bit posh sounding but grammatically correct in English and close to the literal French words.
I don't agree that this translation is grammatically correct in English. If I wanted to use "to whom", I would say "To whom does this coat belong?'
Where to put the pronoun in a sentence is very difficult. I wrote A qui de le livre
"De qui est le manteau ?" is the translation for "Whom is the coat by/from?"