Why translation "I have my man" is incorrect? If it was about husband they should have use word manžela. I know both words are correct - man and husband.
In czech "muž", specially when preceeded by a possesive pronoun means a husband. And actually does not mean "man". But not in english. "i have my man" in English sounds like you are not married. Quite the opposite of a husband.
So why in this case the word man is one of the suggested translations? I know it sounds better when translate with husband but in my opinon man is also proper and should be accepted. And in English sentnce I have my man is also used when talking about husband.
I think that for the sentence "I have my own husband" is better translation "Mám svého vlastního muže".
No because this sentence would have be translated "Mám muže/manžela." without the "my" ("svého") .
I don’t understand the use of « svého ». Why not « mého » ? (I am french, maybe this explains that ^^)
Svůj means 'one's own, belonging to the subject, of the subject, or related to the subject; reflexive personal pronoun; thus rendered as possessive pronouns including my, your, his, her, our, their, depending on the subject.' (from Wiktionary)
I am a bit confused here, what would the sentence "Mám mého muže" produce? Is it just wrong? Because in the notes it says:
Můj corresponds to the English “my” or “mine”.
Isn't "mine" already possessive and indicating "my own"?
mého is the same as svého here. But whenever the subject of the sentence is the "owner" we prefer the reflexive pronoun "svůj" instead of "můj, tvůj, jeho, náš,..."
Thank you very much, I should have finished the course before starting to panic, cause in fact it is quite easy to understand. If anyone has the same problem as me, just read this: http://www.myczechrepublic.com/boards/viewtopic.php?t=10864
hallo, is there a way to note which of the sve endings to use when?? since some can be used for for example my and yours or his and yours?