Isn't "Which things belong to my wife?" also correct in this context?
'belong to' = patřit + dative
I wrote the same thing! It's similar meaning but I guess when it comes to translation, it's probably not right
I wriote the same.
To me "Which things are my wife's" sounds strange in English. This is probably why everyone is looking for a different way to say it.
As a native speaker (American English), I do not find it strange to say "Which things are yours/mine/my wife's etc.
I think it has something to do with the similarity in sound between wife's and my wives. People tend to hear the latter and act surprised. You can avoid it by rephrasing or just adding stress to 's . Just speculation though. (Also American English)
Good point. In "my wife's" the "s" is not voiced. In "my wives", the "s" is voiced.
I'm also a native (US) English speaker and don't find anything wrong with "Which things are my wife's," grammatically or otherwise.
"which things are of my wife?" is not accepted.
Isn't it correct english?
Your version is a literal translation of the Czech sentence, but as ion1122 points out, it is not good English. It would never be used in speech or in writing by a native speaker.
No, it is not correct English.
Why moji and not me? It is the genitive case, right? By the way, google uses moje for this
Both are correct.