Translation:I play the violin and he plays the flute.
Why is 'I play violin and he plays flute' wrong? Perfectly good english I would have thought.
I'm a little confused. In sentences like these, how does the second subject (he) have an invisible verb? Is there an explanation regarding this?
Even in English, that makes some sense. "I play the violin, and he the flute". Probably not as common, though.
I did not know, Spanish says it like this, but I know German has the same. For the second person the verb can be dropped.
This was a good Spanish sentence for us learners. It highlighted one of the ways that Spanish lets you elide repetition where English usually doesn't. But we also do similar stuff. Like in the sentence "I don't like to light firecrackers in my mouth, but he does." Non-English speakers might wonder what exactly it is that he is doing, because most of the last clause of that sentence is invisible.
It's supposed to be "Yo toco el violín y él toca la flauta". If in english you say "I play the violin, and he the flute." then it's politically incorrect.