"아이가 아침만 먹습니까?"
Translation:Does the child only eat breakfast?
Is 만 a modifier that shifts the meaning from just "breakfast" to "only breakfast"? I.e. If I didn't want to say "only" would i be right in thinking "아이가 아침(?) 먹습니까?" means "Does the child eat breakfast?" Although I feel like there should be another particle in place where the (?) is to make that sentence correct... Ugh my brain hurts ㅋㅋ
Yes 만 means only. If you want to fill in the ? in your other sentence you could use 을.
in order to say "does the child only eat in the morning" would it be necessary to at ~에 or does this sentence mean the same?
"does the child eat breakfast only?" has the same meaning. Why is it wrong?