"A man who does not drink"

Translation:마시지 않는 남자

September 30, 2017

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Can someone explain why 감자 comes last instead of first in this sentence? Is it because of the topic particle on the verb?

[deactivated user]

    *남자 haha isnt 감자 potato? Sorry i know its small but sometimes people refer to themselves as potatoes and i found this ironic.


    Yes, the verb gets a topic particle because it's acting like an adjective to describe the noun, thus it goes before the noun.


    It's actually not a topic particle, it just happens that conjugating a verb to make a relative clause often looks like one. This is the phrase "the doesn't-drink man". It's actually more convenient than English, because in Korean, descriptive phrases come on the same side of the noun as descriptive words (adjectives, like "tall") do.


    The literal translation of the sentence would be 'A non-drinking man."


    The "drink-not" man. The "---는 " here is a different thing from the particles used with the other subject topic lessons. Same spelling, different purposes.

    Here this one changes verbals to descriotive that act like adjectives. And that includes negative like this phrase.

    Descriotive verbals just like in English adjectives must be in front of the noun.

    drink-not man


    In English, this phrase would specific relate to not drinking alcohol. Is that the same in Korean?


    No, this would not imply alcohol like it does in English.


    Can you say 안 마시는 남자?


    I would think so, but it wasn't accepted. I'll be reporting unless someone can explain why. Reported 7/24/18.


    Can i use "마시고 없는 남자"?


    why 않는 and not 않은 ?


    In case there's any confusion, these are not topic markers, and they don't follow the same rules as topic markers. Since we're negating a verb in present tense, it's 않는. If you changed it to 않은, the meaning would change to "a man who did not drink" (past tense).


    Duolingo accepts 술을 마시지 않는 남자 as a correct answer.


    is my answer not valid "물을 먹지 않는 남자"

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