1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: French
  4. >
  5. "Mangent-elles des baguettes …

"Mangent-elles des baguettes ?"

Translation:Do they eat baguettes?

March 13, 2013



I said "do they eat baguettes," which was correct, but they didn't give alternatives. Couldn't this also be translated as "are they eating baguettes?"


Yes, that is a correct alternative.


Well, those are totally diffrent translation. Is that ok?


Yes it is OK, because French present tense can mean both for a habit and a current action.


I wrote are they eating baguettes and that was correct


The correct answer is Mangent-elles , but can't it also be Mange-elle? I wrote mange-elle and it marked it as wrong.


You'd have to write mange-t-elle in that case for it to be correct.


Yes: I gave the answer 'Mange-t-elle des baguettes' and it was marked as correct. I suppose you need to be aware of context to figure out which is right, if the pronunciation is the same for both.


There was a clear T sound there. That was my clue to go with plural. I didn't remember about the rule texano2 gave. If you could elucidate texano2, I would really appreciate it.


Would did they eat baguettes work here? If not how would you say it?


Did they eat baguettes? = Ont-elles mangé des baguettes ?


Definitely an innuendo.


It sounded like "Mange-t-elle des baguettes"...


Is there any sound difference between "Mangent-elles" and "Mange-t-elle"? I really don't know when to use each one. Thanks


"do they eat any baguette ?"


I am always confused by this construction: What is the "des" here, exactly?

Is it an indefinite article in plural, or is it "de + les" as in the "some baguettes" construction (c.f., "je mange du fromage")?

How do I distinguish those two cases, in general?


"des" is the plural of "une": une baguette - des baguettes (countable)

"de+les" = "des" is used with verbs constructed with preposition "de" : je parle des baguettes (parler de)

"du, de la or de l' " are partitive articles used with singular, mass nouns: je mange du fromage, de la viande, je bois de l'eau (uncountable).


I wrote "They are eating baguettes?" Which was accepted. Why is this?


Duo is becoming lenient, as it seems, because the French sentence proposed for translation should, on principle, be translated according to the same register of speech:

  • formal to formal: "mangent-elles/ils des baguettes ?" or "est-ce qu'elles/ils mangent des baguettes ?" = are they eating baguettes?

  • relaxed to relaxed: "elles/ils mangent des baguettes ?" they are eating baguettes?


Why do they have it as mangent-elles instead of elles mangent? Is it for the t sound or some grammatical thing?


This sentence is a question, not a statement.

In English you use "do" as an auxiliary to form a question.
In French you use an inversion verb-subject with the same result:


I don't get this sentence. How can it be asking a question? I thought in French to ask a question you say something that sounds like "esker"?


Est-ce que. When you have est-ce que, you don't really invert the position of verb and subject. "Est-ce qu'elles mangent des baguettes?" But when you don't use "Est-ce que", it's the grammar rule to invert like this one above (Mangent-elles des baguettes?).

Although, I heard that, in spoken French, people just ignore inversion and ask questions without inversion (declarative way) sometimes, using only intonation to tell it's a question. Well it's complicate, but we just have to agree with the rule. :)


It sounded like "MANGE-TEN DES BAGUETTES." I didn't hear the "elles" at all. And the "g" in "mangent" didn't have the "JZ" sound I've come to expect. So the pronunciation of this phrase has me a bit confused.


is 'are they eating the baguettes' wrong?


I said breadsticks and it marked it incorrect and said "french bread". Aren't breadsticks 'baguettes' as well?


Yeah they are french

Learn French in just 5 minutes a day. For free.