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  5. "Ellos habrán llamado a todas…

"Ellos habrán llamado a todas las compañías."

Translation:They will have called all the companies.

April 3, 2014



"They will have called all companies" should be marked as correct.


It's my answer, and it's correct. -9 August 2016-


Why is the a needed here? Are companies being treated as if they're people, so the "personal a" is necessary? Or does the preposition serve another function, here?


In line with Brilqntin and t.winkler, WordReference's entry for "llamar" and "llamar a" seems to make a subtle distinction to the word with and without the addition of "a." Without the "a" it means "call" as in "name" and with it, it implies the type of calling you would do with a telephone. The WordReference entry for this word is below:



When I posted the comment above, I didn't know as much about Spanish as I do now. In fact, I may or may not have even been aware of this thing called the "personal 'a,'" but have since done some reading on and practicing with. Heck, now that I think about it, I even wrote an article about it. (Nothing like trying to explain something to others to understand it better.) If you'd like to read it, click on the link below:

Do you want to make it “personal?”

With regard to the comment above, whether you think of the "a" as something you automatically add after "llamar" (conjugated or otherwise), or you think of it as necessary for "personal 'a'" reasons, it makes little difference. After all, when you call by telephone (or through some other method), are you going to be calling an inanimate object? No. You're going to be calling a person and more often than not, someone you know very well. Either way, it ultimately calls for the use of the personal 'a' no matter what you want to call it.

Again, HTH.


What about "calling the taxi station"


I think this is not the personal 'a'; the 'a' this time goes with the verb - 'llamar a'


that's correct...


when you call (llamar) in spanish you Call To

  • 1451

Don't you 'place a call to all the companies' or 'make a call to all the companies' ' and just 'call all the companies'?


It is supposed to be..."They must have called all the companies "


why not "...to all the companies."?


According to information I found on a web page, Monica590636 appears to be correct. An abbreviated excerpt from that page is below:

The future perfect is packed with promise. Use it when the outcome is almost certain. This tense lets you

Express what will have happened by a given time in the future:

Ellos habrán llegado para este fin de semana.
They will have arrived by this weekend.

Express probability or conjecture (when a slight doubt exists) of a recent past action:

Ellos habrán llegado.
They must have (probably have) arrived.

To view the full page, visit

... Future Perfect ... in Spanish



why cant they would of fit in???!!!!


Because it is past not present


Apart from the fact that "would" is the conditional, not the future, you have made a common mistake of using "of" instead of "have" to form a perfect tense.



And it is supposed to be..."They must have called all the companies."


"They will have rung" is the British English translation here


Shouldn't "They will have called on all the companies." have been accepted?




they will have called every company....seems good to me


I wrote "They will have called up all the companies." Is having the "up" in there technically wrong? Because it was marked as incorrect.


It was marked as incorrect for me too, but I'm completely used to saying "call up" as in "call up your cousin, she's been dying to see you!" And the fact that "up" in my word bank, made me want to put it even more.


"They will have called" doesnt sound right to me


it seems that "on all the companies" should be accepted


All the companies!

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