"Je veux que tu manges du fromage."

Translation:I want you to eat cheese.

March 13, 2013

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Why is the que necessary?


I am also curious!


'Que' serves the same purpose as 'that' in English, in the sense of saying something like "I don't like the fact THAT you ate my cheese" or "It's the one THAT I want". In English, the 'that' can be omitted colloquially:

"I don't like the fact you ate my cheese" or "It's the one I want".

However, in French, 'que' cannot be omitted. This sentence is literally "I want that you eat cheese".


Am confused.. Can t we write it as 'je veux tu manger du fromage' I know I may be wrong cos of nuances of the language.. Would appreciate a clarification here


no, you cannot build an infinitive clause if the subject is different from that of the main clause.

  • tu veux (main clause) manger du fromage (infinitive clause)

  • je veux (main clause) que (relative pronoun introducing relative clause) tu manges du fromage (relative clause)


Why would translating this sentance "I would like you to eat some cheese" be incorrect?


You changed the verb and the tense: je veux (simple present I want) is not j'aimerais (conditional I would like)


Personally, while I aggree that he changed the tense, I think that in this one case "would like" should be accetped for "vouloir", since it is a 'more accurate' translationof the sentiment, for lack of a better term. To say "I want you to eat some cheese" is closer to the imperative mood, at least in British-English.

Anyway, whatever about "would like", "I wish that you would eat some cheese" should definitely be accepted as a translation of "vouloir".


"I would like" would be written: j'aimerais or je voudrais


Why don't you need the subjunctive here? Or is manges subjunctive?


Yes it is subjunctive, with a number of forms identical to those of indicative:

que je mange, que tu manges, qu'il/elle/on mange, que nous mangions, que vous mangiez, qu'ils/elles mangent.


Would "je tu veux manger du fromage" have made any sense?


No sense, because the infinitive proposition "I want YOU TO EAT" does not translate directly in French


Why is it manges and not manger?


In French, all verbs are conjugated, ie they change ending according to the subject:

je mange, tu manges, il/elle/on mange, nous mangeons, vous mangez (polite singular and plural), ils/elles mangent


you'd only get in manger if it's like. Je veux manger du pain. ; manger = to eat ; if it is not the actual verb.


Not understanding this sentence. Why are did they use Je veux que?


It is the equivalent of "I want that..."


Thanks for clarifying


glad I'm not the only one confused by this


why not, "I want you eat cheese"?


It isn't a complete sentence/doesn't make sense. To be grammatically correct, in English it is "I want you TO eat cheese."


the slower sound of veux sounds le.!!!


How to say" I want what do you eat" and "I want the cheese you eat"?


Je veux ce que tu manges - je veux le fromage que tu manges.


Is "je veux te manger du fromage" more correct than "je veux que tu manges du fromage"? And also, why is 'que' present in this sentence


You can use an infinitive clause if the subject of the two verbs is the same:

  • je veux manger du fromage (I want and I eat)

Otherwise, you have to use a subordinate clause with a conjugated verb:

  • je veux que tu manges du fromage (I want and you eat)

PS: - "je veux te manger" = I want to eat you


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