"No woman likes him."
Translation:Keine Frau mag ihn.
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gern gives the meaning you do the verb with pleasure. gern doesn't mean to like.
But the separable verb "gernhaben" does mean to be fond of something, so "Keine Frau hat ihn gern" does in fact mean no woman likes him. I can't be sure it's appropriate, but it's possible that it should be accepted here.
Anyone can tell me if it would be okay to say "Keine Frauen mögen ihn"? Is there any difference in the meaning besides the singular form change into plural?
Yes and no.
Edit: judging by the downvotes I'm guessing my answer is unclear. If that's the case, what I mean is that my answer to the first question is "yes" and my answer to the second question is "no".
ihn is Akkusativ (direct object) and ihm is Dativ (indirect object)
A few verbs take Dativ, for instance helfen:
Keine Frau hilft ihm
Why can't I say "Keine frauen mag ihn"? Why can't the subject "Frauen" be plural? instead of the answer Duo wanted which was: "Keine frau mag ihn"?
You would have to change the verb to reflect the fact that the noun is plural, so it should be "mögen". In practice it probably doesn't matter whether the noun is plural or singular, but since this is a language learning exercise, only singular is probably acceptable so that people don't get singulars and plurals mixed up.
Because the sentence starts with a noun phrase and that is the article for the noun in that noun phrase.
No form of "mögen" is "matt." You might expect "magt" in 3rd person singular, but "mögen" is irregular in that instance.
Could you say "Gefällt keiner Frau er"? Trying to figure out why this was not accepted.
