"These are the names of our grandmothers and grandfathers."
Translation:Jsou to jména našich babiček a dědečků.
My answer -- Tyhle jsou jména nasich babiček a dědečků -- was wrong. The correct answer offered was "Tohle jsou jména našich babiček a dědečků," and "tohle" was underlined. I understand (and clearly forgot) the "to je/to jsou" construction, but if "tyhle" was wrong, why is "tohle" okay? Thanks!
I wrote "Tahle jsou jména našich babiček a dědečků" because I thought jména being plural, these/tahle should be plural to. Is that "tohle" in singular the same as "czech to", meaning that it doesn't matter if the verb is plural (for example, jsou to)? I am trying to make sense of this
There is a phrase in Czech "to je (for singular nouns)/to jsou (for plural nouns)", which is used to identify things/people/etc. It was used in the sentence above. The "to" does not change according to the gender of a noun, only the verb is changed to match (singular/plural) with the noun. If you changed the word order "To jsou jména..." it would not sound that odd, because then the "to" would not be sitting next to "jména". (You have definitely seen sentences such as To je žena., To je muž. převiously in the course and they work with the same logic.)
That is grammatically incorrect.
Similarly to the very common "to je/je to/to jsou/jsou" to we have the analogical "toto je/toto jsou" pattern. It is always "to", respectively "toto" not matter what gender is the subject it relates to.
If you were to say "These names are (long)" then yes, it would be "Tato jména jsou (dlouhá)", but that is syntactically very different.
See also the answers to fehrerdef.