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"I have only had the car for eight days."

Translation:Mám to auto jen osm dnů.

October 14, 2017



'Have had' is a past tense. I'd translate "Mám to auto jen osm dnů." into "I have/am having the car for only 8 days" & "I have only had the car for eight days." into ""Měl jsem to auto jen osm dnů."


Present perfect is more present tense than past tense. So the sentence "Mám to auto jen osm dnů" is perfectly correct. The sentence "Měl jsem to auto jen osm dnů" would be, in my opinion, "I had that car only for eight days" or "I had had that car only for eight days (before I ever learned to drive it)".


how would you then translate...I have the car for only eight days.


Mám to auto jen na osm dnů.


okay.. na makes the difference. thanks


This is rough to get on the English side.


Would mean then sth like for 8 days from now on?


For everyone's convenience, the discussion of the reverse exercise is https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/24667700.


What is the difference in meaning to start with Jen místo mám.?


No such difference per se, you have to ask about a complete sentence. I cannot think of any natural sentence that would start with jen. Be aware that "jen na osm dnů" belongs together.


Sorry. I don't understand why, "Měla jsem auto jen osm dnů" Is incorrect. The English clearly requires the past tense. I thought "mám" was present tense...I have...and "Měla jsem" ...I had


That would be used in the past. You crashed the car, so you have it no more, and you would complain "Měla jsem (to) auto jen osm dnů" "I had the car only for eight days." Or maybe you still have it but you are talking about a situation in the past "I had only had the car for eight days (when...)".

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