"The poor men eat the soup."
Translation:Les hommes pauvres mangent la soupe.
19 Comments
It will be good is Duolingo teaches the difference between "pauvre homme" and "homme pauvre".
"un homme pauvre" is a man who does not have money. "un pauvre homme" is only "miserable" (sad, unhappy)
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E.T.s_Son
Subjective/figurative nouns go before the noun. Objective/literal nouns go after.
A man has or does not have money. It is an objective description. Pauvre meaning without money goes after.
Whether a man is truly sad is relative and therefore subjective. Pauvre as miserable, sad etc. goes before the noun.
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The B.A.G.S. convention is a shortcut to determine adjective position because adjectives that describe Beauty, Age, Goodness (or badness), Size are usually relative or subjective/figurative and thus go before the noun.
A man who is bad in your opinion is un mauvais homme.
A man who is objectively bad, perhaps he has been convicted for such, is un homme mauvais.
All adjectives are subjective by nature so except when you are being tested for accuracy, no one will stop you and say that you are all wrong in any particular instance. On the other hand if you want to say what you intend it is good to notice the subtleties.
In French an ADJECTIVE BEFORE a noun uses it's ABSTRACT meaning. An ADJECTIVE AFTER a noun uses it's TANGIBLE meaning. Normally adjectives can't go in front of nouns. Those who do can be remembered with the mnemonic word BANGS (Google: "adjectives bangs" ).
I thinks it's because they eat 'the' soup. if they were to eat 'some' soup it would probably be 'de la soupe'.
Clicking poor suggested mauvais, yet les hommes mauvaises was rejected... no mention of pauvre.
When it comes to people "poor" means "pauvre", not "mauvais/bad".
This process gave poor results = ce processus a donné de mauvais résultats.
"Manger" is the infinitive form. You have to conjugate verbs when they have a subject: je mange, tu manges, il/elle/on mange, nous mangeons, vous mangez, ils/elles mangent.
it didnt hint that poor = pauvre so i put "les hommes faibles..." instead since they told me poor = faible. so why is faibles not accepted?
The context isn't clear, poor men can be translated by "pauvres hommes" or "hommes pauvres". Because even if the meaning is different, the translation remains good in the absence of a specific context.
