"Pili jsme jen čistou vodu."
Translation:We drank only pure water.
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1. We were drinking only pure water.
2. We were only drinking pure water.
Yes, both should be allowed, because many people say 2 when they mean 1. But the real meaning of 2 is that we were only drinking the water, as opposed to eating it, squirting it, splashing it, etc.
My question is why is this "pili" instead of "vypili" because the English translation is the perfect past.
If "we drank" is like, "we drank last night," then ONLY vypili could be used, right?
Is there a nuance where if "we drank" means "we used to drink" then you can still use (or have to use) "pili" instead of "vypili"? Is that the intent if this exercise?
Thank you for your speedy reply! I sometimes do not report what I think may be omissions amongst your accepted translation because I think that you may consider me too pedantic and/or troublesome...If I don't annoy any of you, then I don't mind continuing. Please, let me know - and all the best to you and your colleagues!
There's nothing troublesome about it. If you're sure your rejected answer is correct, just report it, no need to also write it in the discussion. If you're unsure, you're always welcome to ask in the discussion so we can talk about it. Sometimes we may be unsure as well, especially when regional difference in varieties of English are involved. In any case, don't hesitate to send a report either way -- sometimes your answer might get rejected because of a typo, it happens more often than you'd think. And if there's no report, there's no way for us to check what you entered. At any rate, thank you for informing us of (potentially) missing translations and sorry about your loss of progress to become a legend :))