"Proč nemá co jíst ani pít?"

Translation:Why does he have nothing to eat or drink?

October 27, 2017

12 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/federicourban

What's wrong with: why doesn't he have what to eat and drink?

November 25, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/BoneheadBass
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It's a literal translation that is also bad English.

October 21, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Blarni
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Proč 'ani' - není 'a'?

October 27, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/BoneheadBass
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Quick question... Is "ani" used because the verb is negative, or would "nebo" also work here? Thanks!

January 2, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/zenjoesepp
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What about "there is nothing to eat or drink"

July 29, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/endless_sleeper
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That's a completely different sentence.

July 29, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Tim984837
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Elsewhere "se nemá kdo stará" is used for "the is nobody to take care of". So can "nemá co jist" similarly mean "there is nothing to eat"?

October 20, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/butterfly604479

We just had a phrase where "nemá" was translated as "there is nobody" (Now there is nobody to take care of their bear), and it refused to accept "now they have nobody to take care of their bear". Is that nema different from this nema (maybe no long á on the end)? Or is there another reason why I can't translate this one as: Why isn't there anything to eat or drink? I tried and it wasn't accepted. But it seems to me as though it's the same construction as the bear one. Just wondering... Thanks.

March 1, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/VladaFu
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It is a bit different, yes. The other one with the bear is a bit special usage, please see the discussion there. Notice the subordinate clause there. Report missing or unclear translations there.

This one here is quite ordinary mít=to have which can also be used with an infinitive.

March 1, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/butterfly604479

Brilliant, thank you. I will look at the bear discussion in detail next time it comes up in my questions.

March 1, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Phillip_Beck

Surely 'Why doesn't he have something to eat or drink' should be accepted?

March 5, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/BoneheadBass
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On the English side, the Cambridge Dictionary entry (https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/something) for "something" notes the following: "Something" is not usually used in negatives and questions AND "Anything" is usually used instead of "something" in negative sentences and questions. This sentence is both a question and a negative, and something is not currently accepted. "Why doesn't he have ANYTHING to eat or drink," however, is.

March 5, 2019
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