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  5. "Proč nemá co jíst ani pít?"

"Proč nemá co jíst ani pít?"

Translation:Why does he have nothing to eat or drink?

October 27, 2017

15 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/federicourban

What's wrong with: why doesn't he have what to eat and drink?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

It's a literal translation that is also bad English.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

Quick question... Is "ani" used because the verb is negative, or would "nebo" also work here? Thanks!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Daria797617

I have the same question. Could anyone explain to me this case of using "ani", please?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VladaFu

Yes, because it is negative. I do not like nebo here.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Phillip_Beck

Surely 'Why doesn't he have something to eat or drink' should be accepted?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

On the English side, the Cambridge Dictionary entry (https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/something) for "something" notes the following: "Something" is not usually used in negatives and questions AND "Anything" is usually used instead of "something" in negative sentences and questions. This sentence is both a question and a negative, and something is not currently accepted. "Why doesn't he have ANYTHING to eat or drink," however, is.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Blarni

Proč 'ani' - není 'a'?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/zenjoesepp

What about "there is nothing to eat or drink"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/endless_sleeper

That's a completely different sentence.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/butterfly604479

We just had a phrase where "nemá" was translated as "there is nobody" (Now there is nobody to take care of their bear), and it refused to accept "now they have nobody to take care of their bear". Is that nema different from this nema (maybe no long á on the end)? Or is there another reason why I can't translate this one as: Why isn't there anything to eat or drink? I tried and it wasn't accepted. But it seems to me as though it's the same construction as the bear one. Just wondering... Thanks.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VladaFu

It is a bit different, yes. The other one with the bear is a bit special usage, please see the discussion there. Notice the subordinate clause there. Report missing or unclear translations there.

This one here is quite ordinary mít=to have which can also be used with an infinitive.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/butterfly604479

Brilliant, thank you. I will look at the bear discussion in detail next time it comes up in my questions.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Stephan881810

where do I see that it is he and not she? i wrote "why does she not have anything to eat and to drink"
what is wrong here?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VladaFu

The problem is actually in the and to drink instead of or to drink.

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