"Vzal jí sklenici z ruky."

Translation: He took the glass from her hand.

[bright_flash]

Could anyone explain what the grammatical meaning of jí here is? I could understand the sentence Vzal sklenici z její ruky but I don't get this one.

[Zygro]

In this sentence, "jí" would be indirect object. If you use "její", that is a possessive pronoun.

This is the difference between "He took the glass from her (she had the glass in hand)" and "He took the glass form her hand (as in: the hand belongs to her)". First one is "jí", because she's the indirect object, and second one is "její", because the hand is possessed by her.

This sentence would be more commonly used with "jí", but if you want to emphasise the hand, use "její". Though I wouldn't trouble myself with this, both forms are perfectly understandable.

[FQGfV]

So basically, for sake of understanding the form, the more literal translation would be "He took her the glass from hand"?

[Ollyfer]

(Late for the show, bu I have to type it down to explain it to myself) It is far easier to comprehend when translated into German, at least for me: „Er nahm ihr das Glas aus der Hand”. Your sentence, but translated literally into German. If only a direct article would be in use in this sentence, I think it would have made the sentence easier to understand from the start.
But interesting to see that this construction works in Czech.

[RichardBul911825]

It’s called the ethical dative, and it barely exists in English. You can find it in Shakespeare, and you can use it to sound like a pirate, “I’d love me some ale.”

[Chris900231]

How then would you say "He took her glass from her hand"?

[VladaFu]

její sklenici, but it might be acceptable here as well

[VladaFu]

Please note that no Czech sentence in this course is a translation of the English one. It is always the other way. So asking why the main translation is not "z její ruky" does not make sense. It is not a translation at all.

[QlIKbokf]

so if I understand "ji" is also a dative as were all the other "jim" "nam" "bam" and "ti" correct? are those dative because of the specific verbs used in the phrases:
like dat, vzat, ? thanks

[VladaFu]

Yes it is the dative case.

Giving something to someone, directing something to someone (napiš mi - write to me), is the original meaning of the dative case and the origin of the name - do, dare, dedi, datus - is "to give" in Latin.

Therefore it is natural that dát uses dative for the addressee and other related verbs (even if with the opposite meaning) follow the suit.

In German you also have: gib mir!

[QlIKbokf]

Thank you!